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What is the name of the subject that is eligible for inclusion in this study? | - Subjects enrolled in France or Italy: In France or Italy, a subject will be eligible for inclusion in this study only if either affiliated to, or a beneficiary of, a social security category. |
What is the name of the malformation of Chiari II? | Chiari II malformation: MR imaging evaluation. |
What was the tumor larger? | BACKGROUND/AIMS: To achieve a negative surgical margin, resection of superior mesenteric/portal vein is necessary in pancreatic cancer. This study is designed to demonstrate the demographic and clinical differences of the patients requiring major vein resection and the incidence of histopathological vein invasion. METHODOLOGY: A retrospective analysis of patients that underwent pancreaticoduodenectomy for adenocarcinoma of the pancreas between January 2000 and September 2011 was performed. Macroscopic adhesion to vein was considered as an invasion and a resection was performed. RESULTS: Twenty three of 100 patients that underwent pancreaticoduodenectomy for adenocarcinoma of the pancreas had vein resection. Although the operation time (p=0.001), blood loss (p<0.001) and perioperative blood transfusion (p<0.001) were higher in the vein resection group, there were no differences in perioperative and hospital mortality, complication rate and hospitalization time. The tumor was larger (p=0.001) and lymphovascular invasion (p=0.030), perineural invasion (p=0.011), median metastatic lymph nodes (p=0.007), rate of R1 resection (p=0.007) were higher in vein resection group. Only 9 patients out of 23 patients had histopathological vein wall invasion. Overall survival was also not significantly different (p=0.14). CONCLUSIONS: Overall survival in vein resected group was also not significantly different than patients with standard pancreaticoduodenectomy and not all macroscopic vein adhesion means histopathological vein wall invasion. |
What was the major hypothesis that uncontrolled and sustained alveolar inflammation increased the severity of | The study was a subproject within a Specialized Center of Research (SCOR) in Acute Lung Injury. Leonard Hudson was the subproject principal investigator. The epidemiological aspects focussed on refining clinical criteria that predicted patients at high risk for the onset of ARDS, and identifying these patients as early as possible before the onset of lung injury. The major hypothesis was that uncontrolled and sustained alveolar inflammation increased the severity of ARDS and prolonged its course, and that sustained inflammation was more likely to occur when ARDS followed sepsis syndrome than multiple trauma. The investigators also tested the hypothesis that the pattern of the inflammatory response in blood and lungs was an important determinant of whether lung inflammation persisted or resolved. Important components of the inflammatory response studied included; 1) a coordinated sequence of cytokines in blood and lung lavage fluid; 2) the expression of adhesion molecules on blood leukocytes; 3) circulating markers of diffuse endothelial injury (VWF and ELAM1); 4) products of the arachidonic acid cascade; 5) the induction of endogenous proteins that modified the host response to bacterial products such as endotoxin; and 6) inflammatory cell populations and proteins in the lung. Patterns of inflammation were correlated with clinical risks, critical clinical events, and outcome measures. |
- Aside from monotherapy with oral estramustine, no prior chemotherapy except mono | - No prior chemotherapy except monotherapy with oral estramustine |
Inclusion Criteria: | Inclusion Criteria: |
What is the effect of GH therapy on congestive heart failure? | Growth hormone (GH) profoundly affects the developing and adult myocardium. Adult patients with GH deficiency (GHD) and GH excess (acromegaly) provide important models in which to understand the effects of GH in adult cardiac physiology. An increasing body of clinical and experimental evidence illustrates the specific physiological abnormalities that are likely associated with the excess cardiovascular mortality observed in both acromegaly and GHD. Because human GH replacement is now available to treat adults with GHD, new questions emerge about the long-term cardiovascular effects of replacement therapy. In multiple trials, GH therapy for congestive heart failure has been proved ineffective in the absence of preexisting GHD. Case reports suggest that, in the setting of GHD, GH therapy can exert a potent beneficial effect on congestive heart failure. Long-term studies addressing cardiovascular morbidity and mortality are needed to assess the role of GH therapy for GHD. |
What was the survey on ambient-assisted living tools for older adults? | A survey on ambient-assisted living tools for older adults. |
What is the name of the pharmacokinetics of HM30181A, | 2. To characterize the pharmacokinetics of HM30181A, irinotecan and its metabolites (SN-38 and SN-38G) following oral administration of OratecanTM |
What is excluded from the treatment of a previous or concomitant treatment? | - Excludedtherapies and medications, previous or concomitant: |
Has baseline neutrophil counts of > 1500 cells/mm3 within 72 hours prior to registration? | - Has baseline neutrophil counts of > 1500 cells/mm3 within 72 hours prior to registration |
What is the third stage of Onchocerca lienalis larvae? | Surface carbohydrate changes on Onchocerca lienalis larvae as they develop from microfilariae to the infective third-stage in Simulium ornatum. |
What is known as gastrointestinal disorder? | - Known gastrointestinal disorder, including malabsorption or active gastric ulcer, that might interfere with oral intake and absorption of study medication |
What is the purpose of this study? | The purpose of this study is to determine if PF-04802540 decreases REM sleep. |
What is the exclusion criteria? | Exclusion Criteria: |
What was the neotendon in the capsule? | We previously reported on the short-term biocompatibility of a reconstituted type-I collagen prosthesis that had been tested in the Achilles tendons of rabbits. Preliminary results indicated that, by ten weeks after implantation, carbodiimide-cross-linked implants had been replaced by neotendon in a manner that was similar to that of autogenous tendon grafts that had been used as controls. Also by ten weeks after implantation, glutaraldehyde-cross-linked collagen implants were encapsulated and appeared to have caused an acute inflammatory response. In the present study, carbodiimide and glutaraldehyde-cross-linked collagen implants and autogenous grafts that served as controls were implanted for fifty-two weeks as a replacement for a three-centimeter section of the Achilles tendon of rabbits. The absence of a crimp in a cross-linked implant and the presence of a crimp in normal tendon and in tendon that formed after an implant had been resorbed made it possible to distinguish between a cross-linked implant and new host tendon that had replaced the implant after it was resorbed. New collagen that had replaced the implant and autogenous (control) tendon graft were compared with normal Achilles tendon with respect to the angle and length of the crimp. The autogenous grafts and the carbodiimide-cross-linked collagen implants had been completely resorbed and replaced by neotendon. The neotendon that was present fifty-two weeks after implantation was similar, but not identical, to normal tendon. In contrast, the glutaraldehyde-cross-linked implant was essentially inert, had not been resorbed, and was surrounded by a capsule of collagenous connective tissue. The neotendon in the capsule was also similar, but not identical, to normal tendon. There were more cells in the capsule than in the autogenous grafts or in the carbodiimide-cross-linked implants. The results of the present study indicate that rapid repair is achieved with a carbodiimide-cross-linked collagenous implant that has a structure and mechanical properties that are similar to those of an autogenous tendon graft and that biodegrades at a similar rate. Prolonged biodegradation of a glutaraldehyde-cross-linked collagenous implant results in formation of a capsule and only limited formation of neotendon. |
What is the management of sickling conditions in pregnancy? | Management of sickling conditions in pregnancy. |
18 years old and over? | - 18 years age and over |
Male and Female patients with age between 18 and 65 years. | - Male and Female patients with age between 18 and 65 years. |
What is the common name of the alopecia? | Common: alopecia, rash Uncommon: palmar-plantar erythrodysesthesia (PPE) |
What is the name of the study that analyzed dietary intakes of micro and macro | BACKGROUND: Young athletes have more nutritional needs than other adolescents because of physical activity and physical development. Optimal athletic performance results from a combination of factors including training, body composition, and nutrition. Despite the increased interest in nutrition and use of dietary supplements to enhance performance, some athletes might be consuming diets that are less than optimal. In wrestling it is common practice to optimize one's body composition and body weight prior to a competition season. This often includes a change in dietary intake or habits. METHODS: Twenty-eight wrestlers, between the ages of 17 and 25 years, participated in this study. Dietary intakes of micro and macro nutrients were collected by face-to-face interview, structured food frequency questionnaire (FFQ). Dietary intake of energy, carbohydrates, fats and proteins and micronutrients was evaluated. RESULTS: Mean intakes of energy, carbohydrates, proteins and fat were higher than recommended dietary allowances (RDA). The mean intakes of all vitamins and minerals were higher than the RDAs in these wrestlers, except for vitamin D, biotin, zinc, iodine, chrome and molybdenum. CONCLUSIONS: On the basis of our results, nutritional education should be given to these subjects and their families for promoting healthy eating habits. |
What is the effect of congenital heart defects on outcomes of noncardiac surgery in | [Influence of congenital heart defects on outcomes of noncardiac surgery in neonates]. |
What is the CD117 isolation/analysis by Flow Cytometry? | Normal Control (n=5) CD117 isolation/analysis by Flow Cytometry Yes - 240mcg/kg CD117+ stem cell isolation/analysis by Flow Cytometry |
What was the IC50 value for S-NO-Cap? | We compared the mechanisms of the antiplatelet effects of nitroglycerin (NTG) and stabilized nitric oxide (NO). Stabilized NO was in the form of S-nitrosothiols [S-nitroso-albumin (S-NO-Alb) and S-nitrosocaptopril (S-NO-Cap)] or heme-NO [sodium nitro-prusside (SNP)]. The molecular structure of S-NO-Cap was confirmed by mass spectrometry. NTG, SNP, S-NO-Alb, and S-NO-Cap inhibited ADP-induced platelet aggregation dose dependently. The inhibitory IC50 value was 109 microM for NTG, 0.98 microM for SNP, 2.99 microM for S-NO-Alb, and 2.5 microM for S-NO-Cap. NTG (200 microM) released 15.4 microM nitrite anion into platelet-rich plasma (PRP) after 60-min incubation, to which platelets contributed 5.4 microM. On the other hand, SNP and S-NO-Cap released undetectable amounts of NO2- when incubated in either PRP or platelet-poor plasma (PPP). The platelet cytosolic calcium ion (Ca2+) concentration was measured fluorometrically in Fura-2-loaded gel-filtered platelets. Thrombin-induced Ca2+ mobilization was significantly inhibited by 10 microM NTG, SNP, S-NO-Alb, and S-NO-Cap, whereas resting Ca2+ was unaltered. Ca2+ mobilization was inhibited 28.6% by NTG, 91.9% by SNP, 90.0% by S-NO-Alb, and 92.7% by S-NO-Cap. These results demonstrate that NTG is an exogenous donor of NO, but releases it only slowly. On the other hand, SNP and S-nitrosothiols inhibited platelet aggregation by the action of stabilized NO incorporated in their structure and did not release NO. NTG and stabilized NO shared a common mechanism of antiplatelet activity, which involved inhibition of calcium mobilization. |
What is the pain that causes moderate to severe menstrual pain? | - Moderate to severe menstrual-related pain |
What is an approach to local immunotoxicity induced by adjuvanted vaccines? | An approach to local immunotoxicity induced by adjuvanted vaccines. |
What must participants be willing to comply with? | 9. Participants must be willing to comply with all study-related procedures |
What is a human malignant tumor with a high incidence and a poor progno | Nasopharyngeal carcinoma (NPC) is a human malignant tumor with a high incidence and a poor prognosis in Southern China and South-eastern Asia. In this study, we comprehensively analyzed the gene expression profiles in 24 samples of primary differentiated-type nonkeratining NPC (DNK-NPC) tissues, 24 samples of normal nasopharyngeal tissues and 4 DNK-NPC cell lines using cDNA microarray technology and bioinformatics methods. We found expression level of some genes was wildly alerted in the DNK-NPC samples. In addition, our hierarchical clustering analysis revealed 2 distinctive subtypes of gene expression patterns in DNK-NPC tissue samples. The discriminator genes were identified using a signal-to-noise (S(2)N) algorithm by permuting of the data set 10,000 times. To further characterize the clinical relevance of the tumor subtypes, we evaluated a surrogate marker, CCND2, differentially expressed between the 2 tumor subgroups by using immunohistochemistry in an independent set of 137 DNK-NPC samples. CCND2 was highly expressed in the subgroups with "aggressive" features and was associated with T classification (p = 0.006) and clinical stage (p = 0.013). Patients with high level of CCND2 expression had poorer overall survival than those with low level (p = 0.034). Our results suggest that DNK-NPC can be classified into 2 subtypes based on gene expression patterns, which can be used in determining prognosis and treatment of the tumor. |
What is the name of the MENACTRA® SERIES? | IMMUNOGENICITY AND SAFETY OF TWO-DOSE SERIES OF MENACTRA® IN JAPANESE HEALTHY ADULT SUBJECTS: |
What is the most common misconceptions and experiences of health professionals on the management of comor | Contrasting views and experiences of health professionals on the management of comorbid substance misuse and mental disorders. |
What is the RNFA training program at Rock Valley College? | The number of online, distance-learning programs has increased to accommodate the needs of today's adult learners; these include new programs that feature perioperative courses for RN first assistants (RNFAs). Whereas the advantages of these programs include flexible schedules and the ability to participate at one's own pace, the disadvantages can include the lack of immediate access to faculty members who can answer questions or clarify information, and the added difficulty of learning a technical skill without hands-on training. The RNFA training program at Rock Valley College, Rockford, Illinois, is a hybrid training program that includes three phases: an online component, a hands-on workshop, and a clinical preceptorship. |
What is the size of the IAB catheter? | INTRODUCTION: More than four decades have passed since the first clinical use of an (IABP) to improve the clinical scenario for patients with chronic left ventricular failure. The original IAB catheter size was 15 French (Fr), requiring an open surgical insertion and removal. This therapy has now become the most widely used mechanical device for failure of the left ventricle. The introduction of an 8 Fr fibre-optic IAB catheter with a 50 cc diastolic blood volume displacement has further increased the potential clinical impact of this technology. This new catheter can be used for all patients over 162 cm in height, allowing a broader spectrum of patients to benefit from increased diastolic blood volume displacement and fibre-optic pressure monitoring. The catheter has been designed on an 8 Fr shaft platform, potentially reducing the incidence of vascular complications. We present our case report on the world's first implant of this 50cc 8 Fr IAB catheter. CASE REPORT: Cardiac investigations on a 53-year-old man showed the patient to have ischaemic dilated cardiomyopathy with a left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF) of 25%. An 8 Fr 50cc Sensation PlusTM IAB catheter was inserted pre-operatively, prior to coronary artery bypass grafting. RESULTS: The world's first insertion of this 8 Fr 50 cc IAB catheter was a complete success, with no complications. The patient's pre-, peri- and post-operative courses were as we expected and event free, underpinned by IABP support. CONCLUSION: This new 50 cc, 8 Fr IAB expands the patient group that can benefit from greater diastolic blood volume delivery, improved distal perfusion, more accurate monitoring, subsequent better beat-per-beat support and, finally, the reduced complication rates associated with an 8 Fr shaft. |
What is the hepatotoxicity of Cyclosporin A in 66 renal all | Cyclosporin A hepatotoxicity in 66 renal allograft recipients. |
What is the SHIM intended as? | OBJECTIVES: There is no universally accepted instrument to measure sexual function (SF) in men. We compare validated SF measures in a single cohort. METHODS: We compare the Sexual Health Inventory for Men (SHIM), Expanded Prostate Cancer Index Composite SF domain (EPIC-SF), and a reconstructed University of California Los Angeles Prostate Cancer Index SF domain (PCI-SF) in 856 men scheduled for radical prostatectomy. We define potency thresholds for the PCI-SF and EPIC-SF. RESULTS: Mean age, body mass index, Gleason sum, and PSA were 57 years, 26.7 kg/m(2), 6.3, and 5.9 ng/mL, respectively. Mean instrument scores were as follows: SHIM 20.1; EPIC-SF 65; PCI-SF 71. All instruments were significantly intercorrelated (r = 0.99 for EPIC-SF vs PCI-SF, r = 0.75 for SHIM vs EPIC-SF, r = 0.77 for SHIM vs PCI-SF, all P < .001). The SHIM had the greatest negative skew and ceiling effect (P < .001). Although high scores on either the EPIC-SF or PCI-SF translated reliably to high SHIM scores, the reverse was not true. Subjects who reported no erectile dysfunction (ED) on the SHIM (>or=22) had diverse overall SF, whereas those who scored highly on the EPIC-SF or PCI-SF had both excellent erectile function (potency) and overall SF (including orgasmic function, erectile function, and sexual desire). EPIC-SF scores >or=65 and PCI-SF scores >or=75 define men that are both potent and have good SF. CONCLUSIONS: The SHIM is intended as an instrument to assess ED. It is, however, inadequate as a measure of overall SF. The EPIC-SF and PCI-SF capture gradations of both sexual and erectile function and may also be used to define potency more comprehensively. |
What was the enigma of 7q36 linked to autosomal dominant limb dys | The enigma of 7q36 linked autosomal dominant limb girdle muscular dystrophy. |
What is the effect of immunizing with MN rsgp120/HI | Recent animal studies indicate that immunizing with MN rsgp120/HIV-1 in combination with QS21 on a 0, 1, 2 month schedule results in a more rapid rise in binding and neutralizing antibody response than on a 0, 1, 6 month schedule. Such an effect may be particularly desirable in vaccine delivery. This study compares these two delivery schedules using the unadjuvanted vaccine formulation rsgp120/HIV-1 with or without addition of alum. |
What is the name of the procedure that may affect the treatment area? | 3. Any previous and/or pending procedures at the treatment area or that may likely affect the treatment area. |
What is the risk of myocardial infarction and death in patients with acute coronar | In addition to antiplatelet therapy with aspirin, anticoagulation therapy with unfractionated heparin decreases the risk of myocardial infarction and death in patients with acute coronary syndromes. However, unfractionated heparin has pharmacologic limitations that limit efficacy and safety. Enoxaparin, fondaparinux, and bivalirudin are new anticoagulant therapy options with either superior efficacy or better safety than unfractionated heparin. Compared with unfractionated heparin, enoxaparin and fondaparinux are easier to administer, do not require monitoring, and facilitate longer treatment duration. Bivalirudin offers advantages for patients undergoing early percutaneous revascularization. Careful attention to dosing and excellent vascular access site management after cardiac catheterization are required to decrease the risk of bleeding and blood transfusion, which have been associated with increased mortality risk. |
What is the effect of ethnicity and insurance type on the outcome of open thoracic | Effect of ethnicity and insurance type on the outcome of open thoracic aortic aneurysm repair. |
What is the risk assessment to guide the prevention of cervical cancer? | Risk assessment to guide the prevention of cervical cancer. |
What is the potential of capillary electrophoresis? | The potential of capillary electrophoresis (CE) with offline matrix-assisted laser desorption/ionization time-of-flight (MALDI-TOF) mass spectrometry has been demonstrated for the examination of a glycoprotein factor associated with cancer cachexia. A comparison of CE profiles of a healthy volunteer and a cancer patient shows the presence of additional peaks in the electropherogram of the cancer patient that could be associated with cachexia. Micropreparative CE was performed with 180-micron fused silica capillary columns with tapered ends to collect CE fractions for further identification by MALDI-TOF-MS. The analysis of crude urine samples of cancer patients exhibiting cachexia, as well as CE fractions, with MALDI-TOF-MS using ferulic acid as the matrix shows a number of characteristic ions at m/z values of approximately 24 and approximately 67 kDa. The 24-kDa peak may be identified as the cachectic factor, a glycoprotein, whereas the peak at 67 kDa is identified as albumin, which is present in urine of most patients, and to which the cachectic factor is noncovalently bound. The combined use of CE and MALDI-TOF-MS was successful in detecting cachexia in all of the patients in this study, including one patient that was in an early phase of the disease. |
What is the theory of the pathogenesis of inclusion body myositis? | Theories of the pathogenesis of inclusion body myositis. |
What is one innovative therapeutic option for pain patients? | One innovative therapeutic option for pain patients is transcranial direct current stimulation (tDCS): In recent clinical trials, patients reported on reduced overall pain intensity following tDCS stimulation series shown e.g. from Bolognini et al., Antal et al. and most recently from Volz and colleagues. However, there is no current data available evaluating a role of tDCS for patients with chronic neuropathic pain treated with regional anaesthesiological techniques. |
What is the clinical and angiographic feature of carotid transient ische | Clinical and angiographic features of carotid transient ischemic attacks. |
What is the name of the HYSTERECTOMY? | RECOVERY AFTER LAPAROSCOPIC HYSTERECTOMY WITH DEEP NEUROMUSCULAR BLOCKADE AND LOW INTRA-ABDOMINAL PRESSURE: |
What method is used to optimize technology for dietary fiber extraction from Maixiansan? | Optimization of technology for dietary fiber extraction from Maixiansan by response surface methodology. |
What is the name of the nursing home? | - Residing in a nursing home |
What does the deletion of P-Selectin and ICAM-1 do not inhibit? | Gene deletion of P-Selectin and ICAM-1 does not inhibit neutrophil infiltration into peritoneal cavity following cecal ligation-puncture. |
What is the eccrine adnexal neoplasm | Cutaneous myiasis arising in an eccrine adnexal neoplasm. |
What is an asthma that is unstable or required emergent care, urgent care | Asthma that is unstable or required emergent care, urgent care, hospitalization or intubation during the past two years or that requires the use of oral or intravenous corticosteroids. |
What is the Behavior Rating Inventory of Executive Function-Adult version? | Confirmatory factor analysis of the Behavior Rating Inventory of Executive Function-Adult version in healthy adults and application to attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder. |
What is the tool to assess physical job demands? | Evidence-based exposure criteria for work-related musculoskeletal disorders as a tool to assess physical job demands. |
What is the significance of erbB-2 gene product as a target | Significance of erbB-2 gene product as a target molecule for cancer therapy. |
What is the exclusion criteria? | Exclusion Criteria: |
What is the performance status of Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group? | - Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) performance status of 0 or 1. |
What group of patients are special patients? | Special patient groups |
What type of dementia is the Alzheimer type? | Mild senile dementia of the Alzheimer type: 3. Longitudinal and cross-sectional assessment. |
What is the most common type of hemorrhage in adults? | Spontaneous hemorrhage from the thymus is extremely rare. In adults, it may occur in patients without underlying coagulopathy and mimic aortic dissection. To the best of our knowledge, only three previous adult cases have been reported in the English literature. This report presents two additional adult patients who were admitted in our institution with different clinical presentations of spontaneous thymic hemorrhage. |
What is the transcription factor NF-E2-related factor 2? | Radiation therapy can effectively kill cancer cells through ROS generation. Cancer cells with upregulated antioxidant systems can develop high radioresistance ability, and the transcription factor NF-E2-related factor 2 (Nrf2) is a key regulator of the antioxidant system. Currently, there are numerous data indicating the important role of Nrf2 in cancer radioresistance. In this review, we summarize the aberrant regulation of Nrf2 in radioresistant cells and discuss the effects and underlying mechanism of Nrf2 in promoting radioresistance. These findings suggest that Nrf2 might be a potential therapeutic target in cancer radiation resistance or a promising radioprotector for normal organs during radiation therapy in the future. |
What is the effect of intrastatic botulinum toxin type A administration? | Intraprostatic botulinum toxin type A administration: evaluation of the effects on sexual function. |
What is the cause of renal failure in an obese patient? | Acyclovir-induced renal failure in an obese patient. |
What is severe visual impairment? | - severe visual impairment (if it precludes completion of assessments and/or intervention); |
What was the purpose of the in vitro test? | OBJECTIVE: Handling (stickiness, adaptability) of a dental composite does strongly influence quality and success of a dental restoration. The purpose was to develop an in vitro test, which allows for evaluating adaptability and stickiness. METHODS: 15 dentists were asked for providing individual assessment (school scores 1-6) of five dental composites addressing adaptability and stickiness. Composites were applied with a dental plugger (d=1.8 mm) in a class I cavity (human tooth 17). The tooth was fixed on a force gauge for simultaneous determination of application forces with varying storage (6/25 degrees C) and application temperatures (6/25 degrees C). On basis of these data tensile tests were performed with a dental plugger (application force 1N/2N; v=35 mm/min) on PMMA- or human tooth plates. Composite was dosed onto the tip of the plugger and applied. Application and unplugging was performed once and unplugging forces (UF) and length of the adhesive flags (LAF) were determined at different storage (6/25 degrees C) and application temperatures (25/37 degrees C). Unplugging work (UW) was calculated from area of UF and LAF data. RESULTS: The individual assessment revealed significantly different temperature-dependent application forces between 0.58 N and 2.23 N. Adaptability was assessed between 2.1 and 2.8 school scores. Stickiness varied significantly between the materials (scores: 2-3.2). UW differed significantly between the materials with values between 3.20 N mm and 37.83 N mm. Between PMMA substrate or tooth slides and between 1N or 2N application force only small UW differences were found. SIGNIFICANCE: The presented in vitro unplugging work allows for an in vitro estimation of the handling parameters adaptability and stickiness. |
What is the risk of renal cell carcinoma? | Family history and risk of renal cell carcinoma. |
What is the symptom of the person breathing abnormally slowly or weakly? | Symptoms are that the person breathes abnormally slowly or weakly. |
What is the most frequent disorder of respiratory tract? | Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is the most frequent disorder of respiratory tract. Smoking cigarettes and additionally occupational exposure to certain substances are the risk factors of this disease. The aim of our study was to assess the frequency of COPD among works of the pesticides producing factory in Jaworzno, Poland. MATERIAL AND METHODS: The medical history was obtained from 181 workers and spirometry was done in 114 of them. RESULTS: The frequency of COPD (grades 0-2 according to the GOLD) was significantly increased in workers exposed to pesticides compared to not exposed group (19.3 vs. 3%; p = 0.002). The length of exposure to pesticides was significantly longer in COPD compared to healthy group (p = 0.003). Additionally, there was a negative correlation between the values of FEV1/FVC index and respectively length of exposure to pesticides (r = -0.3; p = 0.0003) and the number of packyears of cigarettes smoked (r = -0.39; p < 0.0001). CONCLUSION: We concluded that the frequency of COPD is increased in workers exposed to pesticides at work compared to subjects not exposed. The main risk factors for development of COPD among these patients were the length of exposure to pesticides and to lesser degree number of smoked cigarettes. |
What is the name of the virus that is reactivated? | Latency and reactivation of varicella zoster virus infections. |
What is the name of the disease of any major organ system that would prevent study participation? | - No disease of any major organ system that would preclude study participation |
What is the body weight of 65 to 95 kg? | 5. Body weight 65 to 95 kg, inclusive. |
What is the name of the colony-stimulating factors that helps stem cells move from | RATIONALE: Giving high-dose chemotherapy before an autologous stem cell transplant stops the growth of tumor cells by stopping them from dividing or killing them. Giving colony-stimulating factors, such as G-CSF, helps stem cells move from the bone marrow to the blood so they can be collected and stored. Chemotherapy is then given to prepare the bone marrow for the stem cell transplant. The stem cells are then returned to the patient to replace the blood-forming cells that were destroyed by the chemotherapy. |
Litigation in multiple pregnancy and birth. | Litigation in multiple pregnancy and birth. |
What is the main therapy with any drug? | - Maintenance therapy with any drug, or significant history of drug dependency or alcohol abuse (> 3 units of alcohol per day, intake of excessive alcohol, acute or chronic) |
What is the name of the HMGA2 overexpression? | Odontogenic myxofibroma with HMGA2 overexpression and HMGA2 rearrangement. |
What is the history of dementia? | 3. history of dementia |
What is the average temperature of the neurosurgical procedure? | MR-guided and MR-monitored neurosurgical procedures at 1.5 T. |
What is the relationship between chronic pain and quality of life in multiple sclerosis? | Severity of chronic pain and its relationship to quality of life in multiple sclerosis. |
What other protocol-defined Inclusion/Exclusion may apply? | Other protocol-defined Inclusion/Exclusion may apply. |
What is the SSQ? | BACKGROUND: Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD) leads to progressive muscular weakness and death, most typically from respiratory complications. Dysphagia is common in DMD; however, the most appropriate swallowing assessments have not been universally agreed and the symptoms of dysphagia remain under-reported. AIMS: To investigate symptoms of dysphagia in DMD and to determine the potential of the validated Sydney Swallow Questionnaire (SSQ) to diagnose dysphagia in this patient group. METHODS & PROCEDURES: Three participant groups completed the SSQ and the results were compared: nine DMD participants with dysphagia, six DMD participants without dysphagia and 12 healthy controls. OUTCOMES & RESULTS: The questionnaire scores for dysphagic DMD participants were significantly higher than for non-dysphagic DMD participants (p = 0.039) and for healthy controls (p </= 0.001). The diagnostic ability of the questionnaire was good for detecting dysphagia in participants with DMD (receiver operating characteristic (ROC) area under the curve = 0.89, p = 0.013), with a cut-off score of 224.5 (13.2%) giving a sensitivity of 0.78 and a specificity of 0.83 for determining dysphagia. Dysphagic participants rated time to eat a meal, swallowing hard food, swallowing thick liquids and needing to cough up or spit during meals with the highest severity of all questionnaire items. Results of the questionnaire by item are presented to inform the clinician of the symptoms of dysphagia in DMD. CONCLUSIONS & IMPLICATIONS: DMD leads to pervasive symptoms of dysphagia. The simple SSQ is a clinically informative assessment tool for patients with DMD. |
What is the purpose of the complex? | To conduct large-scale medical examinations of the population with a view to detecting cardiovascular affections an experimental automated complex has been set up. The program of the examination to be instituted is largely drawn up conformable to recommendation of the WHO. In the complex are envisaged collection and registration of the data on the patient, biochemical analyses of the blood and urine, compilation of the case-history, anthropometric measurements and determination of the arterial blood pressure, ECG recording, veloergometric load test measurements, along with spirometric ones and the measurement of the subcutaneous fat layer thickness. The processing of the information obtained is done at the computation under "off-line" conditions. |
What is the consent of the author to write informed consent? | - Provision of written informed consent (subjects age 16 years and over) |
What is a mental disability that could be a cause of a disability that could be | - mental or somatic disability that could impair the usage of a mobile phone |
What are the substances that may reduce insulin requirement? | The following substances may reduce insulin requirement: |
What is the name of the patient who is in a position to stand up? | - Patients unable to stand up even with support |
How many patients were diagnosed with diplopia? | OBJECTIVE: To evaluate portable methods for documenting ocular muscle limitation that might be used at multiple sites in a clinical trial. METHODS: In a prospective consecutive case series, 2 examiners independently evaluated 3 methods of ocular muscle duction testing: a grading scale of 0 to -5 that is in clinical use, the Kestenbaum limbus test using a ruler to measure the millimeters of ocular movement, and an adapted cervical range of motion (CROM) device that measures ocular movement in degrees. Twenty consenting patients (mean age, 55 years) with diplopia, 8 with ocular myasthenia gravis, 11 with a cranial nerve III or VI palsy, and 1 with dysthyroid ophthalmopathy were studied. RESULTS: For Kestenbaum measures, between examiners the standard deviation of the difference for all ductions was 1.9 mm (r = 0.75, P =.01); 95% of differences were 4 mm or less. For the CROM device, the standard deviation of the difference was 7.1 degrees; 95% of differences were 15 degrees or less (r = 0.73, P =.01). For each examiner, the CROM standard deviation of the difference was less than 2 degrees (r = 0.98, P =.01). For the grading scale, the 2 examiners had the same score in 85% of ductions (r = 0.92, P =.01). CONCLUSIONS: The Kestenbaum test and the CROM device gave similar interexaminer repeatability. The repeatability for CROM measures for each examiner was high but was considerably less between examiners. The grading scale gave similar results between examiners. |
What type of prostatic carcinoma variants are allowed? | - All prostatic carcinoma variants except small cell carcinoma of the prostate will be allowed. |
What antibiotic therapy did antibiotic therapy take in the previous 6 months? | - antibiotic therapy in the previous 6 months; |
What is the name of the study that influenced treatment planning decisions of single-tooth implants | A review of factors influencing treatment planning decisions of single-tooth implants versus preserving natural teeth with nonsurgical endodontic therapy. |
What is the purpose of this study? | The purpose of this study is to examine if an individually tailored Internet intervention is more efficacious than an individually tailored print-based intervention and standard Internet intervention for physical activity adoption and maintenance among sedentary adults. |
What is the general name of the general general | General |
What is the name of the catheter that is used to treat a urinary indwell | - Subject has a urinary indwelling catheter within 4 weeks prior to visit 1/screening. |
- Willingness to participate in the event? | - Willingness to participate |
What is the name of the study that has been performed in ViraferonPe | Reproduction studies of ViraferonPeg have not been performed. |
What was the name of the first Term or late-preterm newborn infants recruited from | Term or late-preterm newborn infants from Seventeen hospitals in China were recruited. |
What was the mean serum retinol levels at the time of weaning for | Clinical and biochemical evidence of vitamin A deficiency was produced in rabbits as early as 4-5 weeks after weaning to a vitamin A deficient diet from dams maintained during lactation on the deficient diet. Mean serum retinol levels at the time of weaning for the deficient dams were 25 +/- 6 micrograms/dl compared with 74 +/- 8 micrograms/dl for the controls. Five weeks after weaning, 25% of pups fed the vitamin A deficient diet had ocular lesions characterized by the accumulation of sloughed epithelium on the cornea. At this time, mean serum values of the pups were 10 +/- 4 micrograms/dl for the deficient group and 73 +/- 8 micrograms/dl for the controls. Evidence of critically depleted liver stores was documented in the deficient rabbits by an elevated relative dose response test (54 +/- 18%) that did not occur in the control group (6 +/- 5%). Although food consumption was similar, weight gain was lower in the deficient group when compared to the control group. |
What is the frequency grouping of frequency groups? | Within each frequency grouping, undesirable effects are presented in order of decreasing seriousness. |
What is the squelettal effect of dysfunctions? | Before performing any procedure or initiating early intervention on children in lacteal dentition, it is crucial to closely investigate a few key elements of the cranial base of the child. A first step of diagnostics is needed - the classification of the dysharmony ie its squelettal and/or functional element - before we prescribe a major orthopedic treatment or just stop dysfunctions using simple functional appliances. To confront these constraints of diagnostic, a set of 243 children in the lacteal dentition was examined. Our clinical expertise made it possible to select cephalometric measurements that would be supposedly linked with the type of skeletal dysharmony (based on cranial and facial osseous landmarks located on the profile-view of a digital tele-X-ray). The occlusal classification takes into account occlusal criteria and the design of the masticatory function. Statistical analysis (namely linear discriminant analysis of cephalometric variables) indicates that in lacteal dentition, some cranial architectural features have preferred links with specific occlusions. We noticed that the amplitude of basicranial "flexure" (hence the sphenoidal angle) is influenced by the occipital remodeling: the ontogenic process of flexion of the base and the amplitude of closure of the sphenoid angle are under controlled by the remodeling of the occipital bone in three main modalities. Correlations exist between these groups and the facial equilibrium, like a forward or backward position of the chin. The important clinical deduction is that the masticatory function in lacteal dentition is organized by architectural constraints that arise from the remodeling of the cranial base; the squelettal effect of dysfunctions is certainly specific to each type of dysfunction, nonetheless it also depends on the architectural uniqueness of the cranial base. |
What is the HCV positivity with exception of patients with no signs of active chronic he | 10. HCV positivity with the exception of patients with no signs of active chronic hepatitis histologically confirmed |
What is the BARI 2D substudy? | Association between increased platelet P-selectin expression and obesity in patients with type 2 diabetes: a BARI 2D (Bypass Angioplasty Revascularization Investigation 2 Diabetes) substudy. |
What is the meningitis of the meningitis? | [Mollaret's meningitis]. |
What is the Zubrod performance score? | - Patients must have Zubrod performance status score of =< 2 |