RamkaliBai, a 35-year-old female presented with a one-year history of menstrual irregularity and galactorrhoea. She also had off and on headache, her examination revealed bitemporal superior quadrantanopia. Her fundus examination showed primary optic atrophy. Which of the following is a most likely diagnosis in this case-
pituitary macroadenoma is a tumor of pituitary gland .it causes excessive prolactin secretion causing galactorrhea and inhibit GnRH causing FSH and LH abnormality and also signs of CNS compression causing visual field defects
Craniopharyngioma
Pituitary macroadenoma
Ophthalamicicaaneurysm
ChiasmalGlioma