A 40-year-old female patient presents with history of depressed mood, loss of appetite, insomnia and lock of interest in surroundings for past one year. These symptoms followed soon after a business loss one year back. Which of the following statements is true regarding the management of this patient?
Ans. C. Antidepressant treatment is based on the side effect profile of the drug* The diagnosis in this case is depression. The depression can be precipitated by various stressors, and irrespective of what precipitated it, it should always be treated.* Further, all the available antidepressants have similar efficacy and the choice of antidepressants is usually dictated by the side effect profile the drug.* SSRIs are usually used as the first antidepressants because of their favorable side effect profile.
No treatment is necessary as it is due to business loss
SSRI is the most efficacious of the available drugs
Antidepressant treatment is based on the side effect profile of the drug
Combination therapy of two antidepressants should be given
Miscellaneous