A previously well 2-year boy presents with a brief single episode of generalized seizure. There is no past family history of seizures. O/E, child is ale, active, with axillary temperature of 40degC. Except for bilateral tonsillar enlargement there are no other signs or symptoms at this time. What is the best way for management of this patient?
The description given is a case of Typical Febrile Seizure which occurs within 24 hours of fever and lasts <10 mins and is usually a single episode per every febrile episode. There is no post ictal deficit. For management: A. Prompt reduction of fever with hydrotherapy B. Semi-prone position with adequate airway C. Rule out meningitis D. Avoid aspirin E. Diazepam or Lorazepam for control of seizures
Immediate reduction of body temperature
Intravenous diazepam and phenytoin, followed by a lumbar puncture
Institution of phenytoin for maintenance therapy for at least one year
Rectal diazepam every 8 hourly for 2-3 days to reduce the risk of recurrence
Epilepsy and EEG