A 27-year-old G2P1 woman at 34 weeks' gestation presents to the emergency depament following a motor vehicle collision. In the trauma bay her hea rate is 130/min and blood pressure is 150/90 mm Hg. She is ale and oriented to person, place, and time. She complains of severe abdominal pain that began immediately after the collision. Physical examination reveals bruising over her abdomen, along with a hypeonic uterus and dark vaginal bleeding. A sonogram reveals a placental abruption, and the fetal hea tracing reveals some decelerations. Emergency laboratory tests reveal an International Normalized Ratio of 2.5, with elevated fibrin degradation products. Which of the following is the most appropriate first step in'management?
From the history of given case senario,it is DIC (disseminated intravscular coagulation).This can be managed by management of the underlying causes,fluid replacement,blood component therapy by stored blood cells,fresh frozen plasma(FFP),platelet concentrates and cryoprecipitate are to be given as soon as possible. Refer page no 320,321 of Text book of obstetrics,sheila balakrishnan,2 nd edition.
Administer a tocolytic
Administer a coicosteroid.
Administer fresh frozen plasma.
Deliver the fetus immediately by LSCS
General obstetrics