A 42-year-old woman presents to the emergency depament at 8 PM, mildly somnolent and complaining of the "worst headache of her life," which began at 6 AM on the same day, awakening her. She took acetaminophen (Tylenol) twice during the day, with some relief. At noon she staed to have nausea with vomiting, and by 3 PM she had developed right arm and leg weakness. She denies any head trauma. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis
Spontaneous SAH often is due to aneurysmal rupture. These headaches are described as the worst headache of the patient's life. They frequently are misdiagnosed as migraine or tension headaches or viral illness. The clinical presentation consists of one or more of the following: decreased level of consciousness, increasing headache, or focal motor deficit. Ref:- Harsha Mohan textbook of Pathology
Epilepsy
Hypoglycemia
Transient ischemic attack
Subarachnoid hemorrhage
Nervous system