A 5 year old child presents with history of fever offand-on for past 2 weeks and petechial spots all over the body and increasing pallor for past 1 month. Examination reveals splenomegaly of 2 cms below costal margin. The most likely diagnosis is -
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Acute leukemia o Pallor (anemia), petechial spot (thrombocytopenia), fever (infection due to neutropenia) with splenomegaly suggest the diagnosis of acute leukemia. o Fuher, presence of splenomegaly eleminates aplastic anemia and ITP as the possibilities "Splenomegaly and lymphadenopathy are extremely uncommon in ITP and their presence should lead one to consider other possible diagnosis". - Robbin's "Splenomegaly is characteristically absent in aplastic anemia and if present the diagnosis of a plastic anemia should be seriously questioned". o Hypersplenism' is a condition characterised by splenomgally and cytopenias with a normal hyperplastic marrow and response to splenectomy. Although cytopenias resulting from hypersplenism may give rise to most manifestations mentioned in the question these are more likely with massively enlarged spleens and not with minimally enlarged spleen as in the question above (2cm below costal margin in a 2 year old child).
Acute leukemia
Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura
Hypersplenism
Aplastic anemia