A previously healthy 45 years old laborer suddenly develops acute lower back pain with right-leg pain and weakness of dorsiflexion of the right great toe. Which of the following is true:
(b) If the neurological signs fail to resolve within 1 week, lumbar laminectomy and excision of any herniated nucleus pulposus should be done- Bowel bladder involvement, increasing neurological deficit or failure of conservative treatment is an indication for surgery. Exercises are contraindicated acute pain and 6 weeks of trial is advised before carrying out surgical intervention.
Immediate treatment should include analgesics muscle relaxants and back strengthening exercises
The appearance of the foot drop indicate early surgical intervention
If the neurological sign resolve within 2-3 weeks but low back pain persists, the proper treatment would include fusion of affected lumbar vertebra
If the neurological signs fail to resolve within 1 week, lumbar laminectomy and excision of any herniated nucleus pulposus should be done
Thoracic and Lumbosacral Spine Injuries