A 55-year-old man presents with upper gastrointestinal bleeding and is found to have multiple ulcers in the duodenum. Workup finds his serum gastrin levels to be markedly elevated, and an abdominal CT scan finds a large mass in the tail of the pancreas. A biopsy from this pancreatic mass finds an islet-cell adenoma that secretes gastrin. Which of the following is the best diagnosis
Zollinger-Ellison syndrome refers to gastric gland hyperplasia secondary to excessive gastrin secretion by a tumor (gastrinoma), usually found in the pancreas. The excess gastrin increases the thickness of the gastric mucosa and increases the acid production by the stom ach. This results in the formation of recurrent peptic ulcers, especially within the duodenum and jejunum. As a result, the classic clinical triad associated with the Zollinger-Ellison syndrome is the combination of increased acid production by the stomach, peptic ulcers of the duodenum and jejunum, and an islet-cell tumor of the pancreas. Ref:- Harshmohan textbook of Pathology
Zollinger-Ellison syndrome
Verner-Morrison syndrome
Hyperophic-hypersecretory gastropathy
Menetrier disease
G.I.T