Which of the following statements about Mollaret meningitis is true?
Answer is A (Caused by Herpes simplex 2 in most of the cases): Mollaret's Meningitis is a form of Self-limiting Benign Recurrent Aseptic Lymphocvtic Meningitis that is most commonly caused by HSV-2 infection of the CNS. Several etiologies have been proposed for Mollaret's Meningitis however recent studies suggest that most cases of Mollaret's Meningitis result from Herpes Simplex Virus -2 (HSV-2) infection Mollaret's Meningitis It is the name given to a Self-Limited Recurrent form of Aseptic Meningitis It is also referred to as Benign Recurrent Lymphocytic Meningitis Recurrent episodes (typically> 3 episodes) of meningismus and fever lasting for 2-5 days with spontaneous resolution is highly suggestive of a diagnosis of Mollaret's Meningitis CSF Examination is characterized by a cloudy spinal fluid with lymphocytic pleocytosis and normal glucose and protein. Presence of large granular cells on Papanicolaou's stain of the CSF called `Mollaret's Cells' is considered pathognomonic (Mollaret's cells were once thought to be endothelial cells but are now believed to be from the monocyte/ macrophage family) Several etiologies. have been proposed for Mollaret's Meningitis however recent studies suggest that most cases of Mollaret Meningitis result from Herpes Simplex Virus -2 (HSV-2) infection Presence of HSV DNA on PCR is highly suggestive of Mollaret's Meningitis (In most cases HSV-2 DNA is detected It is not associated with genital herpetic lesions
Caused by Herpes simplex 2 in most of the cases.
Is a recurrent, benign septic meningitis
Is also referred to as "Benign Recurrent Neutrophilic Meningitis"
Does not resolve without treatment