58501
Saw this sample sentence on
[Tangorin](http://tangorin.com/general/%E8%A6%9A%E3%81%BE%E3%81%99 "覚ます"):

> その物音が私を眠りから **覚まさせた** 。 The noise awoke me from my sleep.

Since 覚ます is a transitive verb, I do not understand why not simply use the
past tense instead:

> その物音が私を眠りから **覚ました** 。 (past tense)

A transitive verb can be used in its causative form when the speaker is making
someone do said verb. However, I do not think that is the case here, since the
sentence should be thus written instead (from my understanding):

> (私は)その物音 **に** 私を眠りから **覚まさせた** 。 (causative)

Nonetheless, this seems utterly awkward to me.

Alternatively, if the speaker wishes to express the negative nuance, the
causative-passive can be utilized:

> (私は)その物音 **に** 私を眠りから **覚まさせられた** 。 (causative-passive)

Am I miserably mistaken?

I fear that my use of particles here may be incorrect, and juggling these
different forms around exacerbates the situation.

Please send help.
CC BY-SA 4.0
2018-05-09T04:22:33.050
58485
2018-05-09T15:35:03.567
2018-05-09T05:47:04.873
27674
27674
question
grammar transitivity causation
Why is the causative used for a transitive verb in this case?
According to a native speaker, using the past tense or the causative expresses
the same meaning in this case. Additionally, one can also say:

> 私はその物音で目を覚ました。

Here the subject changes, but the meaning is more or less the same.
CC BY-SA 4.0
2018-05-09T15:35:03.567
58501
2018-05-09T15:35:03.567
27674
58485
answer