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I was reading the bible in Japanese a bit and came across this bit of Jonah 1:

> アミタイの子ヨナに、主から次のようなことばがありました。

Notice how the noun-phrase "Jonah son of Amittai" in the NIV became "アミタイの子ヨナ"
in the Japanese JLB. From what I can tell it could also have been written
"アミタイの子のヨナ" but instead the second possessive is implied by word order.

I've seen this in other instances as well, and I'm really curious: when
exactly can one get away with implying the possessive like this? I'm really
curious as whenever I try to, apparently I can never get it right and still
have no clue what I'm doing wrong.

PS. If asking when can you imply the possessive is to much, feel free to
answer when you CAN'T imply it if that would make it more answerable.
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2018-12-08T03:27:30.190
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2018-12-08T11:33:30.627
2018-12-08T11:33:30.627
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question
nuances possession
When can I get away with implying the の possessive?
Apposition without の (i.e. …子ヨナ) sounds fairly formal, or could be theatrical
or narrative, compared with the one with it (…子のヨナ). So, you will do it when
you want that rhetorical effect.
CC BY-SA 4.0
2018-12-08T04:23:12.530
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2018-12-08T04:23:12.530
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answer