For example: 私には夢がある (I have a dream) Does using に have a different
implication from ommiting it? Is it even possible to omit it in this sentence?
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2019-06-10T00:11:25.517
68771
2019-06-10T00:21:35.810
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question
grammar
When is the に particle used for possession?
In sentences using ある/いる, に is usually used as a describer of location.
Therefore I think a more precise translation would be "I have dream in me" or
"There is a dream in me" (even if those sound a little weird in English).

I think the inclusion of に emphasizes the metaphorical holding of a dream
within oneself, as opposed to just simply saying a dream exists. I would think
that に could be omitted from this sentence as 私は～がある is a pretty common
structure to describe things you have such as a car.
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2019-06-10T00:21:35.810
68772
2019-06-10T00:21:35.810
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answer