 pass a law for asset forfeiture domestically, that applies to the United States. If the UK passed a law for asset forfeiture, that applies to the UK. If Germany passed a law on asset forfeiture, it applies to Germany. None of those three have anything to do with any of the others, and they certainly have nothing to do with international law, which for the most part doesn't even exist. I didn't read the whole Majinski Act, but