Applied to XXXX for a no-rewards credit card. Have excellent credit for over XXXX yrs., never been late ever, never missed a payment. XXXX shows my FICO score as XXXX while Equifax shows it as XXXX today, two days ago, XXXX months ago this disparity existed. I check every year all three credit reporting agencies & FICO score but last year I did not pay extra for the FICO except from XXXX. I just did a HELOC refi XXXX months ago & FICO was XXXX ( down then due to from the hard credit pull ). XXXX statement also shows FICO in XXXX usually. Experian shows credit usage low, 19 % debt to income ratio. XXXX used Equifax, which shows a FICO score of XXXX - XXXX points less than Equifax. This disparity in FICO scores is unexplained & I received a higher interest rate for the XXXX credit card due to XXXX using Equifax 's FICO score. I was told by the Equifax rep that mortgage companies use XXXX while credit card companies use Equifax. Why? I think that Equifax is treating my mortgage as a revolving line of credit since what displayed on my screen ( after I had to pay {$19.00} for it ), was " Credit Summary '' line item Mortgage shows " balance '' {$45000.00}, " available credit '' {$150000.00}, " credit limit '' {$190000.00} - this is inaccurate since it is a 15-yr fixed rate mortgage, so there is no available credit or credit limit. I can not think of any other element that would drag down my FICO score so significantly other than this. Equifax CSR told me that its score was not an actual FICO score ; rather, it was a " Risk Score. '' What? When I called back and spoke to someone else, she stated that the XXXX score was indeed a FICO score. There must be an explanation for this enormous disparity and I am chalking it up to underhanded misdealings between credit card issuers and Equifax. Please look into this starting with me. I have screen shots of both XXXX and Equifax 's reports showing my FICO score and will email it to whomever works on my case but do n't wish to post it now.