I opened a XXXX XXXX Credit Card in XXXX in XXXX XXXX XXXX. Due to unfortunate circumstances I could n't continue paying for the Credit Card. The acct was charged off in XXXX. Midland Collection Management purchased the debt XXXX. In XXXX I went to XXXX to my father residence. He was very XXXX. I was unemployed at the time.I decided to go and care for my father until he passed in XXXX XXXX. I been a resident in XXXX XXXX and homeowner since XXXX. XXXX XXXX I came back home. On XXXX XXXX, XXXX I found out they took out all of my money from my checking account XXXX. When I went to the bank to find out why. XXXX XXXX XXXX explain to me there was a legal order from Midland Collection Management. They hired a lawyer in XXXX XXXX. They sent a summons to my father 's house in XXXX XXXX. That is not my residence never was. I was there temporarily due to my father illness. My stepmother is not in good standings with me. Therefore, she is not going to forward or even tell me I had any mail there. I do n't understand why they did n't send correspondence to my home address in XXXX XXXX. That is were the acct originated from. Not XXXX. How would I have know there was a summons against me. I called the lawyers and asked them to send me all correspondence that they sent to my father 's house to my home address in XXXX XXXX and their response was that they cant send me anything because its out of their jurisdiction. My response to them was if I 'm out of your jurisdiction how were you able to get my money from my acct here in XXXX. I feel its foul play on there part. This account is a debt that has reached statue of limitations. This acct is from XXXX. I am seeking legal help in this matter. My question is why did n't they send correspondence to my address in the state where the acct originated which was XXXX XXXX and not XXXX. Now I am left with a judgement. Which I will be seeking legal advise to have this judgement reversed or void due to violations on there part.