XXXX XXXX XXXX placed a collection on my Experian credit report on XXXX XXXX, XXXX for {$680.00}. I have never received any communication regarding this account via XXXX Mail from XXXX and had no idea what it was for. It did, however, look familiar and further investigation of my XXXX credit report from XXXX XXXX, shows that XXXX had the same collection on my credit report then for the same amount but with a different account number. I had not received any communication regarding the previous ( same account ) back in XXXX either and when I discovered it on my credit report, I sent a letter to XXXX requesting validation of the account per the FDCPA. This was sent on XXXX XXXX, XXXX. XXXX has never responded to this request. I also disputed the account with the credit bureau around the same time and XXXX subsequently deleted the account from my report on XXXX XXXX, XXXX. 
I have never received any mailed communication from XXXX, nor have they every validated the account from my requested in XXXX. I disputed the account they are currently reporting on my Experian credit report and received notification that it was verified as accurate. How is it possible that XXXX can validate a tradeline as being accurate when they admittedly do not have information about the account in their possession and can not provide it despite my request for validation over a year ago. XXXX is deliberately trying to poison my credit rating by reinserting this alleged account on my credit report. They can not provide documentation to me proving that I owe the debt nor can they show proof that they have any legal right to collect it, yet they verified it as accurate to Experian.