Will SRAS curve definitely shift if LRAS curve shifts? From what I know, a shift in LRAS is generally caused by a change in maximum productive capacity of an economy, which affects the full-employment output level. Such change in maximum productive capacity would also cause a shift in SRAS.

So does this mean whenever LRAS curve shifts SRAS curve will also shift? If not, are there any examples against this?
The SRAS also shifts.

SRAS is normally used in models where the supply side does not adjust immediately to the new conditions in the market, i.e. models with nominal rigidities. Examples are: sticky wages, sticky prices.

Other instances where adjustments in prices or nominal money supply are not immediate and in which money has a real effect are the Lucas 'misperceptions' or 'islands' model or Cash in advance models.

However, and to the point of answering your question, all these models coincide that in the long term and when the agents in the economy have had the time to adjust their choice variables and/or information symmetry is restored, the AS is vertical again (LRAS). So, if there has been sufficient time for the long run AS to adjust, by definition of short run, i.e. shorter than the long run, there has been enough time for the SRAS to adjust as well.