Is consumer surplus subjective? The producer surplus is objective because the it is the total revenue minus the total variable cost. For example, if the producer sold 100 goods at 5 each, and the total variable cost was 300, then his surplus is 200. The total revenue and variable cost is object because it is numerical, a seller can not change these numbers based on his own perceptions or feeling.

But the demand curve is different from consumer to consumer, the consumer surplus is defined as The difference between the value that a consumer places on units purchased and the amount of money that was required to pay for them. The consumer places on the good is entirely subjective, therefore is it correct to say how big your consumer surplus is entirely up to the individual consumer? And even for the same consumer, the consumer's value placed on a good can change from time to time, for example, the value I place on going to see a movie on a date with a possibility of getting laid later that night is much higher than the value I place on going to a movie by myself even thought the product is exactly the same. But my two consumer surplus would have a enormous difference.
Yes it is subjective. But subjective valuations are where demand curves come from (at least for final goods and services). Consumer surplus is simply a measurement of aggregate willingness to pay so it is subjective (like utility) and measured in currency units (unlike utility).  

For example, if a movie ticket is for sale for ten dollars and you'd pay up to 15 dollars to see it then your consumer surplus is five dollars. This valuation is purely subjective. Another consumer could have a different maximum willingness to pay for the ticket. If you thought the movie was going to be less entertaining or had something else fun to do the maximum you'd pay would be lower and so would the consumer surplus. 

One area of this that once confused me is the units. Utility functions typically are discussed as though they were in units of utils but utils cannot be compared across people. However, willingness to pay, which is an implication of the budget constraint and preferences implied  by household utility functions, is measured in currency and can be compared across people. That is, it is sensible to say "you would pay more to see Iron Man IV than I would" but not "you would get more utility from seeing Iron Man IV than I would". 

So it isn't exactly as @Kitsune says, that consumer surplus is utility minus price. Rather, consumer surplus is willingness to pay minus price, which are both in currency units and can be aggregated over and compared across consumers.