Can Autonomous Consumption be Greater than Income of individual? Autonomous consumption is done either through past savings or by borrowing money or selling asset to have minimum consumption in order to survive.

So can autonomous consumption be greater than our 1st level of consumption ?
Expressing consumption as

$$C = a + f(Y)$$

where $Y$ is income, there is nothing in the theory that forbids 

$$a &gt; f(Y)$$

even though the theoretical anticipation and the empirical regularity (i.e. for most people) is that $a &lt; f(Y)$.