Can setting bank's reserve requirement ratio in 100% simulate gold standard? Statement:


  If you want a gold standard, it's easier to set bank's reserve requirement to 100%.


Context:
This was a comment in a video telling how government actions influence monetary inflation.

Question: Is the statement true? 

P.S.: Please, give a source to the answer.
Examine this statement:


  If you want a gold standard, it's easier to set bank's reserve requirement to 100%.


The only sense in which this is true is that it eliminates fractional reserve lending. 

However, a key defining characteristic of the gold standard is that government-issued money can be converted into gold upon demand. This creates a real constraint upon government fiscal policy. Having a 100% reserve requirement does not imply such a constraint on government policy, the currency can be a fiat currency.