Sign of substitution and income effect of a price change I just want to confirm with my understanding.

It is correct to say that no matter price increase or price decrease, the substitution effect is always negative for both inferior goods and normal goods. Then for income effect, it is positive for inferior goods and negative for normal goods no matter price increase or decrease.
The income effect is negative for normal goods and positive for inferior goods. That is, you buy more normal goods when you are richer and less inferior goods. 

In contrast, the substitution effect is negative when price increases and vice-versa. It always moves opposite to the price sign.