Is market failure the same allocative inefficiency? From an IB Economics book (in the microeconomics section):







The part in blue suggests market failure is the same as allocative inefficiency, but the part in red seems to suggest that market failure is one cause or type of allocative inefficiency.

What is the difference between the two, if any?
In this context 'market' usually means some allocation mechanism. For example free market, or a market where someone has monopoly power. Allocation of goods and resources can be done in other ways: e.g. you can divide all resources evenly among production processes and all goods evenly between consumers. This will generally result in allocative inefficiency (were all production processes equally important and efficient?). But it is not market failure because there was no market, just an allocator/social planner.