statistical discrimination VS taste based discrimination Given the progress in the literature on economics of discrimination. What is the reason for still believing in the dichotomy taste-based VS statistical discrimination. I think the first theory is just a specific case of statistical discrimination, where information on discriminated workers' productivity is weighted by the discrimination coefficient (which basically is just a scaling factor). Any attempt to disentangle the two types of discrimination is pointless. Or?
You will find below two good and recent surveys on the literature on economics of discrimination and they all point out a clear difference between taste-based and statistical discrimination. We can imagine a situation where the employer's information about workers' productivity is perfect, such that there is no statistical discrimination, and still observe a racial wage discrimination for example because the employer has a taste for discrimination. Knowing the source of discrimination seems crucial to fight against discrimination and its consequences.

Charles, K. K., and J. Guryan (2011): “Studying Discrimination: Fundamental
Challenges and Recent Progress,” Annual Review of Economics,
3(1), 479–511.

Lang, K., and J.-Y. K. Lehmann (2012): “Racial Discrimination in the
Labor Market: Theory and Empirics,” Journal of Economic Literature,
50(4), 959–1006.