If we estimated the value of all the assets in the world and compared it with the estimated total wealth of individuals, would the results be similar? Say we estimated the value of all assets (money, stocks, bonds, property, etc.) in the world.

Next we estimate the wealth of all the individuals in the world.

Would the two resulting values be similar or substantially different? If they would be substantially different, then why?

I am happy for people answering the question to use the definition of wealth they feel is most appropriate.
As currently written, the question asks whether the value of all assets equals the wealth of individuals. This is trivially not the case, since assets can be liabilities of another entity.

As an example, imagine an economy in which one individual owns both an industrial firm and a bank. The bank can make a loan to the firm, and both entities’ balance sheets grow - the bank gets a loan asset, the firm gets a new deposit at the bank. This means that the total value of all assets increases by double the amount of the loan. However, the act of taking out a loan and not spending it does not increase the value of a corporation, and so individual owning the two banks has no increase in wealth.