Confused about relation of inflation to a currency's depreciation? I'm a complete newbie to this foreign exchange stuff and was reading about the impact a country's price levels have on exchange rates. 

So from what I understand, the general idea is that inflation leads to a decrease in value of a country's currency (depreciation).

increased prices in goods in a country --> the country's exports will be less competitive --> so demand for the exports fall --> demand for the country's currency falls --> and this leads to depreciation of currency

however, it's also said that:

with a depreciated currency -> imports will be more expensive BUT the country's exports will be cheaper and more competitive --> then won't demand for currency rise instead?

If so, doesn't this contradict the first statement? It seriously confuses me. Inflation that leads to depreciation will then lead back to appreciation of the currency again? 
I know I'm probably missing something here, but this just makes no sense from the way I picture it.
Your confusion might be mitigated if you thing about these as short- and long-term effects. 

That is, the more immediate effect of inflation is that exports fall, demand for currency falls, and so the value of currency falls. 

This causes imports to fall, domestic spending to increase, and foreign demand for domestic goods to increase. That is, exports rise. This increase in exports causes an increase in demand for the home currency and this puts upward pressure on the currency. 

The short-term effect of inflation is that we have currency depreciation. The long-term effect is less clear cut, since the depreciation should trigger an increase in foreign demand which should counteract the initial effect of inflation.