Inflation, Monetarism and Keynesianism Is there a strict division between the Keynesianism and Monetarism on the view of inflation. In other words, does the push and pull inflation only belong within a Keynesian framework and does inflation defined in term of balance between monetary base and supply of goods and services only belong within the Monetarism.

Alot of presentations of inflation are self contradictory to me and I thought this might be why. I.e that there is indeed two definitions of inflation not having anything to do with each other originally.

In particular I find it hard to distinguish between "An increase in the money supply" and "An increase in the aggregate demand for goods and services"

On this page ; https://www.investopedia.com/articles/05/012005.asp

The demand is governed by the existing amount of money in my opinion, i.e demand pull become secondary or a consequence of increase in money supply. Hence the "definition" of inflation as "increase in prices" seams to include two things of which we cant decide what is what.

Increase in money supply $\rightarrow$ demand pull  $\rightarrow$ prices up.

Increase in money supply $\rightarrow$ prices up.

demand pull  $\rightarrow$ prices up. (without increase in money)

The last implication donst make sense.
I thick you should return to some book about history of economic theories usch as "Modern Macroeconomics: Its Origins, Development and Current State" . Center of focus in Keynesianism/Monetarism debates was about the power of monetary/fiscal policy for combating recession.

Monetarists won and showed that monetary policy is effective at least when there is no ground for liquidity trap. Monetarists also believe that "transmission mechanisms" of monetary policy are more much broader than what Keynesian interest rate-investment mechanism ascertains. thus Monetarists as well as Keynesians accept that printing money will increase aggregate demand but through much more broader channels.

I should say that distinction between demand-pull inflation and cost-push inflation is a little tricky, because in real world (rather than in our DSGE models which are designed based on equilibrium paradigm) when central bank prints money excessively,  demand increment in  different markets will take place in a gradual manner and inflation transmits from one market to other markets step by step. According to this fact, one who just observe the input price increment in some markets, may think that there should be a cost-push inflation.

Pure cost-push inflations are mainly rooted in real shocks (namely supply shocks) rather than nominal shocks (namely demand shocks). For example droughts, wars and oil price shocks  can make pure cost-push inflation.

Finally I should say that monetary policy may be able to dampen nominal (demand) shocks, but there are some economists who argue that monetary policy should not harshly respond to supply shocks . Unfortunately in real world central banks hardly can find out whether a price increment is due to supply shocks or demand shocks.

Monetary policy is much more complicated than what Taylor Rule suggests.