Is it possible for disposable income to be lower than consumption expenditure? I have an issue dealing with dataset provided for my coursework.

Because of the fact that I've been failing to find time-series of the same or similar values anywhere from world bank to Office for National Statistics, I strongly doubt it. 

The data series provided is shown below in a form of line chart. The brief provided says it's in constant prices, it unfortunately does not indicate the reference year. What it is supposed to describe is consumption and disposable income for the United Kingdom over the period of 03Q2 to 15Q4. I don't believe there would be negative savings for the whole period. 



I have been looking around to find some hint that would prove this true, unfortunately the graph below shows the opposite. I can explain the jump in disposable income by change in reference year, however the consumption data does not make sense to me. At all.
the first graph is 1970-2003, the second is 2003-2015