Help interpreting a Taylor rule I need a bit of help interpreting this version of the Taylor rule I stumbled across recently: 

$$\ln\frac{1+i_t}{1+i} = X_i \ln\frac{1+i_{t-1}}{1+i}+X_{\pi}\ln\frac{\pi_t}{\pi}+X_y \ln\frac{Y_t}{Y}+X_s \ln\frac{S_t}{S}+X_{\theta}\ln\frac{{\theta_t}}{\theta}$$

I think that S is the exchange rate and theta is a money growth factor. Other than that, I am not very sure. I am hoping this uses some standard notation so that anyone here more familiar with economics research might be able to give me more thorough understanding of what is happening here.
$i_t$ should be the interest rate at time $t$. $\pi_t$ the inflation at time $t$. $Y_t$ the income at time $t$. The variables without indices are the targets of the central bank. The interpretation of this Taylor rule is therefore that the current interest rate is a function of the past deviation of the interest rate from the target, the current inflation deviation from target, the current output gap, the exchange rate deviation from target, and deviations from the current money growth target.