Is there a model of set theory in which:


1. Every projectively definable family of sets of reals has an OD or projectively definable member;
2. Every OD or projectively definable set of reals has the property of Baire.


PS: By a projectively definable family of sets of reals I mean:


There exists a formula $\varphi(\Gamma)$ where $\Gamma$ is supposed to be a set of (tuples) of reals and $\mathcal{F}$ is the family of sets defined by: $$\Gamma \in \mathcal{F} \;{\rm iff} \; \varphi(\Gamma,a)$$
but $\varphi(\Gamma,a) : Q\_1 x\_1 \dots Q\_n x\_n Q'\_1 z\_1 \dots Q'\_m z\_m \psi(x,z,a,\Gamma)$ with $x$ and $z$ reals and integers respectively, and the $Q\_i, Q'\_j$ are quantifiers $\in \{ \forall, \exists\}$, $a$ are real parameters. $\psi$ is a $\Delta\_0$ formula in the variables $x\_i,z\_n$ and $\Gamma$.


$\varphi$ and $\psi$ are formulas in the language of arithmetic.


Note that $\Gamma \subset \mathbb{R}^2$ to be precise. An example of $\varphi$ would be:
 $$\forall x \exists y (x,y) \in \Gamma \wedge [\forall z \forall t (((x,z) \in \Gamma) \wedge ((x,t) \in \Gamma)) \rightarrow z=t]$$ ($\Gamma$ is a function, here $x,y,z,t$ are assumed to be real numbers). 


Note that $\mathcal{F}$ may have cardinality $2^{2^{\aleph\_0}}$ so we cannot parametrize it by reals.



Projectively definable family of sets of reals
Let me ignore the OD issue for a moment, and just prove that there is always a projectively definable family of sets of reals, with no projective member. Indeed, there is such a family consisting of a single set. 


Namely, let $S$ be the full satisfaction relation on the reals for projective truth. Thus, $S$ consists of all the pairs $(\varphi,x)$, where $\varphi$ is a projective statement and $\varphi(x)$ holds. The set $S$ is not itself projective, for otherwise we could diagonalize against the projective sets by forming the set $\{ n\mid \neg\varphi(n,n)\}$, which would have to be projective, but cannot be defined by any projective formula. 


But now the point is that the singleton family ${\cal F}=\{S\}$ is definable by a formula of your type, and is therefore a projectively definable family of sets of reals in the sense of your question. The definition of this family simply notes that $S$ is the only set of pairs that obeys the Tarskian definition of truth, so that it gets the right answer on the atomic formulas, and also does the right thing on Boolean combinations and on quantifiers. That is, the set $S$ exhibits certain internal features — the recursive Tarskian definition of truth — and these features are expressible by quantifying only over integers and reals, provided that we can also refer to membership in $S$ in the expressions. 


This example rules out property 1, if one should ask for a projective member of the family. But since projective truth is ordinal definable, it doesn't rule out statement 1 as it is stated, and for this I have to think a bit more.


In any case, if $V=HOD$ then every set is OD, and so any model of $V=HOD$ will satisfy statement 1 in the ordinal-definable version. 


