Consider an infinite set $S$, of positive integers.
If all the finite subsets of $S$ have GCD $>$ $1$, is it necessary that the GCD of $S$ is greater than $1$ as well?



Is it necessary that gcd > 1 of an infinite set?
Consider the set of finite linear combinations with integral coefficients from $S$. It is an ideal in $\mathbb{Z}$, hence it equals the set of multiples of some integer $d>0$. The integer $d$ divides every element of $S$, hence it cannot exceed the GCD of $S$. On the other hand, $d$ is a finite linear combination with integral coefficients from $S$, hence it is divisible by the GCD of some finite subset of $S$, which of course is divisibe by the GCD of $S$ as well. This shows two things at one stroke: $d>1$ by assumption, and $d$ equals the GCD of $S$.


P.S. I voted to close, but then could not resist to write down what I consider the most natural proof.


