Dear all,


I would like to know if the Gauss transformation *T(x) = fractional part of 1/x, x in (0,1)* (with the Gauss invariant probability measure) is an exact endomorphism (in the sense of Rokhlin). I have failed to find an answer in the literature, any reference would be welcomed. 



exactness of the Gauss transformation
Hi Steven,


the answer to your question is yes and there are several ways of deriving the exactness of Gauss map with respect to Gauss probability: for instance, in this [text](http://w3.impa.br/~viana/out/sdds.pdf) of M. Viana, it is derived as a consequence of the proof of the exponential decay of correlations.


