A number of sources concerning Speiser's 1934 result state that the Riemann Hypothesis (RH) implies $\zeta'(s)\neq 0$ for all $0<\text{Re}(s)<1/2$. But I have seen some (possibly less reliable) sources without proof suggesting this is an *if and only if* relationship, i.e. RH$\Longleftrightarrow\zeta'(s)\neq 0$. However, those (perhaps more reliable) sources state only forward implication, i.e. RH$\Longrightarrow\zeta'(s)\neq 0$. My question is this: is Speiser's result an *if and only if* relationship or not?



A question about Speiser's 1934 result on the Riemann hypothesis
Yes, Speiser's theorem is an if and only if.


See Theorem 1 and "Corollary to Theorem 1" in Levinson and Montgomery's [Zeros of the derivatives of the Riemann Zeta-function](https://doi.org/10.1007/BF02392141). Acta Math. 133 (1974), 49–65.




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Edit: An English language explication of Speiser's proof can be found in Arias-de-Reyna's [X-ray of Riemann Zeta Function](https://arxiv.org/abs/math/0309433)


