Let $W\_e$ be the c.e. set which is the domain of the p.c. function $\varphi\_e$ and consider the equivalence $\sim$ such that $x \sim y$ if and only if $\varphi\_x=\varphi\_y$. I am wondering if $W\_e$ infinite implies $W\_e/\sim$ infinite.



Turing code numbers and c.e. sets.
No. Fix any $k \in \mathbb{N}$. We can computably enumerate infinitely many $n$'s such that $\phi\_k = \phi\_n$. For example, given any $j$, let $n$ be the code of the program which is just like the program coded by $k$, except that it contains extra $j$ useless states. Let $W\_e$ be the infinite c.e. set whose members are the $n$'s so enumerated. Then $W\_e/{\sim}$ has just one element.


