I have a problem for which I either need a proof or a counterexample.


We are given two discrete random variables $x\_1$ and $x\_2$ in $[0, n]$ where $F\_1(x)$ is the probability of $x\_1\leq x$, and similarly $F\_2(x)$ is the probability of $x\_2 \leq x$. My goal is to show that there always exists a number $c > 0$ that satisfies 
$$\int\_{0}^{\infty}x{f\_2(x)}(1-F\_1(x))\leq c\int\_{c}^{\infty}f\_1(x)F\_2(x),$$
where $f\_1(x)= \Pr[x\_1=x]$ and $f\_2(x)=\Pr[x\_2=x]$.


Thanks for any help.



Given two probability density functions find a number that satisfies a given equation
The OP has just been edited from an apparently absolutely continuous version to a discrete one. So, I gather that the integrals are now to be understood with respect to the counting measure, that is, as the sums. 


However, there is no essential difference here between the absolutely continuous and discrete versions, and counterexamples for the two versions can be quite similar. For instance, suppose that $x\_1$ and $x\_2$ are random variables taking only nonnegative integral values such that 
\begin{equation}
F\_1(x)=1-\frac1{\ln x}\quad\text{and}\quad f\_2(x)=\frac C{x\ln^2 x} 
\end{equation}
for integers $x\ge3$ and $F\_1(x)=f\_2(x)=0$ for integers $x<3$, where $C$ is a positive real constant such that $f\_2$ is a pmf. 
Then 
\begin{multline}
 \int\_{0}^{\infty}x{f\_2(x)}(1-F\_1(x))=\sum\_{0}^{\infty}x{f\_2(x)}(1-F\_1(x))
 =\sum\_{3}^{\infty}\frac C{\ln^3 x}=\infty \\ 
 >c\ge c\int\_{c}^{\infty}f\_1(x)
 \ge c\int\_{c}^{\infty}f\_1(x)F\_2(x)
\end{multline}
for any real $c>0$, so that we have the opposite of the desired inequality. 


