It is easy to see that if $A\times B$ is homeomorphic to $A\times C$ for topological spaces $A$, $B$, $C$, then one may not conclude that $B$ and $C$ are homeomorphic (for example, take $C=B^2$, $A=B^{\infty}$). The question is: for which $A$ such conclusion is true? I saw long ago a problem that for $A=[0,1]$ it is not true, but could not solve it, and do not know, where to ask. Hence am asking here. The same question in other categories (say, metric spaces instead topological) also seems to have some sense.



When factors may be cancelled in homeomorphic products?
For $A=[0,1]$, let $B$ be the 2-torus with one hole and $C$ be the 2-disc with two holes.


The products $B\times[0,1]$ and $C\times[0,1]$ can be realized in $\mathbb R^3$: the former as a thickening of the torus, the latter in a trivial way. Each of these products is a handlebody bounded by the pretzel surface (the sphere with two handles). It is easy to deform one to the other "by hand". 


