Hello,


Let $F$ and $G$ be two functions belonging in the Selberg class, $\Lambda\_{F}$ and $\Lambda\_{G}$ the complete L-functions associated to $F$ and $G$. I would like to know whether this assertion is true or not:


"$\Lambda\_{F}$ and $\Lambda\_{G}$ have the same zeroes if and only if $F=G$ or $F=\overline{G}$."


Thank you in advance.



Zeroes of complete L-functions
Expanding on Stopple's comment above, I believe the following argument based on Landau's explicit formula answers the question.


Here is a generalization of Landau's explicit formula for the zeros of the Riemann zeta-function which is exercise 8.4.8 in M. Ram Murty's book *Problems in Analytic Number Theory*: Let $F$ be in the Selberg class, $n>1$ be a positive integer, and $T>1$. Then 
$$ \sum\_{|\gamma|\leq T} n^\rho = -\frac{T}{\pi}\Lambda\_F(n) + O( n^{3/2}\log T )$$
where $\rho=\beta+i\gamma$, $\beta>0$, runs over the non-trivial zeros of $F(s)$. Here the coefficients $\Lambda\_F(n)$ are defined by
$$ -\frac{F'}{F}(s) = \sum\_{n=1} \frac{\Lambda\_F(n)}{n^s}.$$


Now suppose that $F$ and $G$ are in the Selberg class and have the same zeros (with multiplicity). Then we deduce from Landau's formula that
$$ |\Lambda\_F(n) - \Lambda\_G(n)| \ll \frac{n^{3/2}\log T}{T} $$
for all $n>1$. Letting $T\rightarrow \infty$, it follows that 
$\Lambda\_F(n) = \Lambda\_G(n)$ for all $n>1$. This implies that $F=G$.


