I already asked the same question at stack exchange but got no response for quite a while, so I thought I'd ask here. I also know that this has a certain resemblance to [this question](https://mathoverflow.net/questions/77066/chern-classes-of-blow-ups), but I cannot really make much sense of the answer given there.


Write $\mathbb{P}^n:=\mathbb{P}^n\_\Bbbk$ for projective space over some (algebraically closed) field $\Bbbk$ and assume that $X\subseteq\mathbb{P}^n$ is a linear subvariety, $\mathbb{P}^m\cong X$, say. I now consider the blow-up of $Y:=\mathbb{P}^n$ in $X$, yielding a blow-up diagram
$$\begin{matrix} \tilde{X} & \xrightarrow{\;j\;} & \tilde{Y} \\
\hphantom{\scriptstyle g}\downarrow {\scriptstyle g} &&
\hphantom{\scriptstyle f}\downarrow {\scriptstyle f} \\
X &\xrightarrow{\;i\;} & Y
 \end{matrix}$$
My question is, what is the second chern class $c\_2(\tilde Y):=c\_2(\mathcal{T}\_{\tilde{Y}})$ of the tangent sheaf of $\tilde{Y}$?


**Remark**: I am ultimately interested in the degree of $c\_2(\tilde Y)c\_1^{n-2}(\tilde Y)$. If I could understand the total chern class $c(\tilde Y)$, that would be even better.


**My thoughts so far:** The chern classes of $Y$ (and $X$) have well-known representation, and there is a formula for computing the chern classes of blown-up varieties in Fulton's book *Intersection Theory*, namely *Theorem 15.4*. For brevity, I will quote his *Example 15.4.3*, which gives a formula for $c\_2$:


$$c\_2(\tilde Y) = f^\ast(c\_2(Y)) - j\_\ast\left( (d-1) g^\ast(c\_1(X)) + \tfrac{d(d-3)}{2} \zeta + (d-2) g^\ast(c\_1(\mathcal{N})) \right)$$


Here, $\mathcal{N}=\mathcal{N}\_{X/Y}$ is the normal bundle of $X$ in $Y$ and $\zeta$ denotes $c\_1(\mathcal{O}\_{\tilde{X}}(1))$.


From Fulton's *Example 3.2.12*, we know that $c\_1(X)=(m+1-d)\cdot\xi$ and $c\_1(\mathcal{N})=d\cdot\xi$ with $\xi = c\_1(\mathcal{O}\_X(1))$. Now, I am kinda stuck. I am not sure what the push-forwards and pullbacks really do - in particular, what is $g^\ast(\xi)$ in terms of $\zeta$? What is $f^\ast$, applied to the class of a hyperplane? What does $j\_\ast$ do? More importantly, are these the right questions to ask? 


Ultimately, I thought (hoped) it would be possible to express $c\_2(\tilde Y)$ or even $c(\tilde Y)$ as a sum of intersections of "obvious" cycles in $\tilde Y$, possibly involving only the class of the (strict) transform of a hyperplane and the exceptional divisor. 



(Second) Chern class of projective space, blown up in a linear subvariety
My understanding of this is very unsophisticated, but perhaps that means that what I can explain is precisely what you want.


To understand $f^\*[H] \in H^2(\tilde Y)$, where $H \subset Y = \mathbb{P}^n$ is a hyperplane, it may help to think of $H$ as the zero set of section $s$ of the anticanonical bundle $\mathcal{O}\_Y(1)$. Then the zero set of $f^\*s$ (essentially just the preimage of $H$) is a divisor representing $f^\*[H]$. If $H$ contained the blow-up locus $X$, then the resulting divisor is the sum of the proper transform $P$ of $H$ (the blow-up of $H$ at $X$) and the exceptional set $\tilde X$. If $H$ was transverse to $X$, then the divisor is the proper transform of $H$ (which is exactly the pre-image of $H$ in this case), which is the blow-up $\tilde H$ of $H$ at $H \cap X$.


I presume $d = n-m$, the codimension of $X$ in $Y$.


If $D$ is a divisor in $\tilde X$ representing $[D] \in H^2(\tilde X)$, then $j\_\*[D]$ is the class $[D] \in H^4(\tilde Y)$ that you get by considering $D$ as a cycle in $\tilde Y$. $g^\*\xi$ can be represented by a divisor that is the preimage in $\tilde X$ of a hyperplane in $X$. Writing that hyperplane as the intersection of $X$ with a transverse hyperplane $H \subset Y$, we find that $j\_\*g^\*\xi = [\tilde H \cap \tilde X] \in H^4(\tilde Y)$. $\zeta \in H^2(\tilde X)$ corresponds to the conormal bundle of $\tilde X$ in $\tilde Y$, so it is the restriction of $-[\tilde X] \in H^2(\tilde Y)$ to $\tilde X$. Therefore $j\_\*\zeta = -[\tilde X]^2 \in H^4(\tilde Y)$.


To describe $j\_\*\zeta$ another way, note that since $\mathcal{N} = \mathcal{O}\_X(1)^d$, $\tilde X$ is a trivial bundle $X \times \mathbb{P}^{d-1}$. You can get an explicit trivialisation by picking copy of $\mathbb{P}^{d-1} \cong Z \subset Y$ disjoint from $X$: given points $x \in X$ and $z \in Z$, the line from $x$ to $z$ defines an element in the projectivisation of the fibre of $\mathcal{N}$ over $x$. Let $h$ be the projection $\tilde X \to Z$. Then $\mathcal{O}\_{\tilde X}(-1) = g^\*\mathcal{O}\_X(1) + h^\*\mathcal{O}\_{Z}(-1)$.
$h^\*\mathcal{O}\_{Z}(1)$ corresponds to a trivial $\mathbb{P}^{d-2}$ subbundle of $\tilde X$. Such a divisor is the intersection of $\tilde X$ with the proper transform $P$ of a hyperplane $H$ containing $X$ and some hyperplane in $Z$. In other words, $-\zeta = g^\*\xi -[P \cap \tilde X] \in H^2(\tilde X)$, so $j\_\*(\zeta + g\_\*\xi) = [P \cap \tilde X] \in H^4(\tilde Y)$.


Sanity check: $-[\tilde X] + [\tilde H] = [P]$ implies $-[\tilde X]^2 + [\tilde H \cap \tilde X] = [P \cap \tilde X]$, so it adds up.


