My question is about terminology:


Do you know why stationary sets were named such?


Going over the [following MO question](https://mathoverflow.net/questions/37502/what-is-the-idea-behind-stationary-sets) about the intuition behind stationary sets, the only compelling argument I can think of is Fodor's lemma. 


Is this the reason?



Why stationary sets were named such?
In Infinite Combinatorics, in: Handbook of the History of Logic, 6. Sets and Extensions in the Twentieth Century, p 226, footnote 214, Jean Larson states that the term was first used in G. Bloch: Sur les ensembles stationnaires de nombres ordinaux et les suites distinguees de fonctions regressives, Comptes Rendus Acad. Sci Paris, 236(1953), 265-268. The reason for the name was probably Neumer's theorem, a weaker and earlier form of Fodor's theorem. 


