If the stated question is true then what are the consequencies to mathematical physics as an aspect of Hilbert's 6th Problem.



Does Godel's Incompletenss Theorem mean there is no solution to Hilbert's 6th Problem?
No. The incompleteness theorem does not say anything about whether a particular informal theory is capable of being formalized. The incompleteness theorem only applies to formal theories, so it doesn't tell us anything about a theory that has not yet been formalized. You might want to read a book by Franzen called Godel's Theorem: An Incomplete Guide to Its Use and Abuse.


