Defining $$\xi(s) := \pi^{-s/2}\ \Gamma\left(\frac{s}{2}\right)\ \zeta(s)$$ yields $\xi(s) = \xi(1 - s)$ (where $\zeta$ is the Riemann Zeta function).


Is there any conceptual explanation - or intuition, even if it cannot be made into a proof - for this? Why of all functions does one have to put the Gamma-function there?


Whoever did this first probably had some reason to try out the Gamma-function. What was it?


(Best case scenario) Is there some uniform way of producing a factor out of a norm on the rationals which yields the other factors for the p-adic norms and the Gamma factor for the absolute value?



Why does the Gamma-function complete the Riemann Zeta function?
To the best of my understanding, the answer is yes, and this uniform way consists of some integration over the local field. This is explained in John Tate's dissertation. One starts with a certain smooth rapidly decreasing function, for which one takes the characteristic function of the p-adic integers in the nonarchimedean case and the function $e^{-|x|^2}$ for an archimedean field. This is being multiplied with $|x|^s$ (approximately) and integrated over the Haar measure of the additive group of the field. This produces the $\Gamma$-factor for an archimedean field and $(1-p^{-s})^{-1}$ for a p-adic field.


