I am reading the paper "Generating random bits from an arbitrary source: fundamental limits" by Vembu and Verdu. This paper is written in the language of information theory, however, I need to translate one quantity in this paper in terms of computer science.


*inf-entropy rate*, $\underline{H}(X)$, of an arbitrary source is defined (Definition 3 in the paper) as the largest real number $\alpha$ (including $\infty$) that satisfies 
$$\lim\_{n\to\infty}P\{x^n:~\frac{1}{n}\log\frac{1}{P\_{X^n}(x^n)}\leq \alpha-\epsilon\}=0,$$ for all $\epsilon>0$.


Comparing this quantity with the definition of min-entropy, we can say that for i.i.d sources $\underline{H}(X)=H\_{\infty}(X)$. 


On the other hand, it is obvious that for all stationary and ergodic sources, the Shannon-McMillan theorem leads us to conclude that $\underline{H}(X)=\lim\_{n\to\infty}\frac{1}{n}H(X^n)$ as mentioned in expression (2) in the paper.


Since i.i.d sources are a special class of stationary and ergodic sources for which $\lim\_{n\to\infty}\frac{1}{n}H(X^n)=H(X)$, from above, we conclude that for any i.i.d sources, $H\_{\infty}(X)=H(X)$ which is clearly not true in general. [This is only true when the source is assumed to be uniform too].
So there must be a mistake somewhere in the above argument. Could you please let me know where is the mistake? 



Connection between inf-entropy rate and min-entropy
The proper of definition of inf-entropy is as follows:
$$
\underline{H}(\mathbf{X})=\text{p-}\liminf\_{n\to\infty}\frac{1}{n}\log\frac{1}{P\_{X^n}(X^n)}.\\
$$
where $\mathbf{X}=(X\_1,X\_2,\dots)$ and $\text{p-}\liminf\_{n\to\infty}$ is defined as follows:
$$
\text{p-}\liminf\_{n\to\infty}Z\_n=\sup\left\{\beta\mid \lim\_{n\to\infty}\Pr(Z\_n<\beta)=0\right\}.
$$
Now for i.i.d. source $\mathbf X$, we have:
$$
\frac{1}{n}\log\frac{1}{P\_{X^n}(X^n)}\geq \log \frac 1{\max\_{x\in\mathcal X}P\_X(x)}=H\_{\infty}(X)
$$
where $H\_{\infty}(X)$ is Rényi entropy of $X$ with order $\infty$.
This means that:
$$
\lim\_{n\to\infty}\Pr\{\frac{1}{n}\log\frac{1}{P\_{X^n}(X^n)}< H\_\infty(X)\}=0.
$$
Now based on the definition of inf-entropy, you can only say:
$$
H\_{\infty}(X)\leq \underline{H}(\mathbf X).
$$
As a matter of fact, if $\mathbf X$ is i.i.d., as you mentioned yourself, we have:
$$
\underline{H}(\mathbf X)=H(X).
$$
So basically you did not consider $\sup$ in the definition of inf-entropy.


