If you were a doctor, please answer the following multiple-choice question honestly. 
You need to follow the examples to answer the given question. Here are some examples: 
Question: A 20-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department by her boyfriend for right arm and leg weakness, numbness, and tingling that has been resolving gradually. The symptoms started 4 hours ago after she had an argument with her boyfriend during which she slapped and kicked him. She says she has been limping and cannot use her right arm anymore. She has never had similar symptoms in the past. She has a history of genital herpes and trichotillomania. She is alert and oriented. Physical examination shows upper and lower face symmetry and normal speech. She has 5/5 strength in all extremities and 5/5 right ankle plantar flexion when lying down. She has 4/5 strength in the right arm and leg when ambulating. She cannot stand on her toes when asked. Her deep tendon reflexes are 2+ bilaterally. She has normal proprioception, light touch sensation, and two-point discrimination in all extremities. She has a negative Spurling test. CT of the head without contrast shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management? Options: A. Administer alteplase, B. Provide patient education, C. Prescribe aspirin, D. Start biofeedback therapy
"The answer is: B. Provide patient educationQuestion: A 4-year-old boy is referred to the infectious disease clinic for recurrent pneumonia. Although he has had several previous hospital admissions and received multiple courses of antibiotic therapy, he continues to get sick. On his most recent hospital admission, the boy presented with mild fever, right-sided chest pain, and yellow-colored sputum. He had difficulty breathing and diminished breath sounds on the right side of the chest. A CT scan of the thorax revealed multiple right-sided ground-glass opacities. Sputum cultures grew Aspergillus galactomannan. The boy’s medical history is significant for neonatal sepsis and recurrent episodes of pyoderma and otitis media. His younger brother had recurrent purulent skin infections before he died of an otogenic brain abscess at the age of 2. His mother says that skin infections are common in the male members of her family. The patient’s HIV status is negative and his complete blood count, T cell and B cell counts, immunoglobulin profile, and complement tests are within normal limits. Which of the following is the next best step in the management of this patient? Options: A. CD4