Identification of a heparin-binding growth factor-1 nuclear translocation sequence by deletion mutation analysis. We have shown previously that a deletion mutant of human heparin-binding growth factor (HBGF)-1, HBGF-1U, lacking the sequence Asn-Tyr-Lys-Lys-Pro-Lys-Leu is capable of initiating c-fos mRNA expression and polypeptide phosphorylation on tyrosine residues at concentrations that do not induce either DNA synthesis or cell proliferation (1). The fact that addition of the nuclear translocation signal from the yeast histone 2B protein to the HBGF-1U mutant caused reconstitution of the biological activity of HBGF-1 indicated that nuclear translocation may be an important component of the mitogenic signal induced by HBGF-1. In order to examine the nuclear translocation potential of HBGF-1 alpha, the deletion mutant HBGF-1U, and the yeast histone 2B-HBGF-1 chimera, HBGF-1U2, we expressed these forms of HBGF-1 in murine endothelial cells. Western blot and two-dimensional Western blot analysis of cytosol and nuclei demonstrate that although the three forms of HBGF-1 are readily detectable in the cytosol of the individual transfectants, HBGF-1 alpha and HBGF-1U2 but not HBGF-1U was detected in the nucleus. Furthermore, murine endothelial cells expressing HBGF-1 alpha and HBGF-1U2 exhibited an atypical cellular phenotype in vitro that was absent in the HBGF-1U transfectants. These data suggest that HBGF-1 contains a functional nuclear translocation sequence that may be responsible for the initiation of DNA synthesis, and these data further correlate the presence of the nuclear translocation sequence with an abnormal endothelial cell phenotype in vitro.


Efferent connections of the centromedian and parafascicular thalamic nuclei in the squirrel monkey: a PHA-L study of subcortical projections. The subcortical projections of the centromedian (CM) and the parafascicular (Pf) thalamic nuclei were examined in the squirrel monkey (Saimiri sciureus) by using the lectin Phaseolus vulgaris-leucoagglutinin (PHA-L) as an anterograde tracer. Both CM and Pf project massively to the striatum where they arborize in a complementary fashion. On the one hand, CM innervates most of the putamen caudal to the anterior commissure, a dorsolateral rim of the putamen rostral to the anterior commissure, discrete areas of the head of the caudate nucleus close to the internal capsule, and a lateral sector of the body of the caudate nucleus. On the other hand, Pf provides a heavy input to the head, body, and tail of the caudate nucleus, and to the rostral putamen, excluding the areas innervated by CM. In addition, Pf projects more discretely to the nucleus accumbens and the olfactory tubercle. Therefore, the projections from both CM and Pf cover the entire striatum, with those from CM arborizing into the "sensorimotor" striatal territory and the ones from Pf innervating the "associative-limbic" striatal territory. Furthermore, CM and Pf project to extrastriatal subcortical structures, such as the globus pallidus, the subthalamic nucleus, and the substantia nigra, where they also terminate in a complementary fashion. Topographically and cytologically, Pf is closely related to the subparafascicular nucleus (sPf). The Pf-sPf complex projects to the hypothalamus, the substantia innominata, the peripeduncular nucleus, and the amygdala. It also gives rise to descending efferents arborizing in various brainstem structures, including the inferior olivary complex. Additional studies with retrograde double-labeling methods show that distinct cell groups within CM project to the motor cortex and the striatum. Likewise, separate neuronal populations within the CM-Pf-sPf complex give rise to striatal and brainstem projections, the former arising from CM and Pf and the latter mainly from sPf. The complementary nature of CM and Pf projections to the striatum and other basal ganglia components suggests that this thalamic complex participates in a highly ordered manner in the parallel processing of the information that flows through the basal ganglia.


Altered expression of pp60c-src induced by peripheral nerve injury. The normal src protein (pp60c-src) is localized principally in the nerve growth cone of developing neurons and declines to low levels with synaptic maturation. To determine whether pp60c-src is reexpressed in regenerating axons, its expression was studied by immunoblotting and immunocytochemical analyses in adult chicken sciatic nerve following nerve crush injury. pp60c-src expression was found to increase during nerve repair with a temporal and spatial pattern consistent with a localization in regenerating axons. At the crush site, pp60c-src increased to maximal levels 7 days postinjury, increasing fivefold relative to 0 day nerve. In the nerve segment distal to the injury, the maximal increase in pp60c-src was sevenfold and occurred between 11 and 21 days postinjury. Immunoperoxidase staining revealed pp60c-src in regenerating axons and certain nonneuronal cells at the site of nerve repair. pp60c-src was induced in both motor and sensory neurons, as shown by increased pp60c-src immunoreactivity in their cell bodies located in the spinal cord and dorsal root ganglion. Phosphotyrosine-modified proteins that were potential targets of pp60c-src increased following nerve crush, and were localized to outgrowing neurites as well as to nonneuronal cells. These results suggest that pp60c-src is a common component of cellular mechanisms regulating growth cone migration in both regenerating and developing axons.


Postnatal development of the corticotectal projection in cats. Although numerous physiological studies have provided compelling evidence for the involvement of the corticotectal projection in the normal development of visual response properties of neurons in the superior colliculus, little information is available on the morphological development of corticotectal axons. Thus, our goal was to determine the postnatal changes characterizing the development of the topography and morphology of corticotectal axon arbors. Topographically restricted injections of Phaseolus vulgaris leucoagglutinin were made into striate cortex to label corticotectal axons and their terminal arbors. Following injections of similar size and location in kittens and adult cats, a similar, localized region of the superior colliculus was labeled at all ages. However, while present in the appropriate topographic location in colliculus, the corticotectal projection revealed a greater tangential distribution in kittens than adults. Corticotectal terminal zones underwent a twofold decrease in tangential area during the first 8 weeks after birth. From corticotectal terminal zones in kittens, extended many fine collaterals that ended as growth cones and radiated up to 1 mm from the focus of the terminal zone. By 8 weeks after birth, these immature collaterals were no longer observed, and the corticotectal terminal zone was indistinguishable from those in 12-week-old kittens and adult cats. Corticotectal axon arbors became more specialized in the first 8 weeks after birth; both en passant and terminal swellings increased in diameter, and terminal swellings increased in number, although the total number of swellings per unit length of axon remained relatively stable. The number of axonal branches increased threefold between 1 and 8 weeks after birth. Thus, as the corticotectal projection becomes spatially restricted during development, individual arbors become progressively more intricate with regard to focused collateral branching and the elaboration of complex axonal specializations.


Intrinsic circuitry in the cat superior colliculus: projections from the superficial layers. The neuroanatomical tracer Phaseolus vulgaris leucoagglutinin (PHA-L) was used to label the local projections of neurons whose cell bodies are located in the superficial layers of the cat superior colliculus. Small, localized groups of neurons in the superficial layers project to all regions of the ipsilateral colliculus, including the deep layers. Comparable distributions of labeled terminals are seen throughout the colliculus when the PHA-L injection site is located in the rostral, middle, or caudal one-third of the colliculus. In addition, there is some evidence of a topographic projection from superficial to deep layers. These results suggest that a complex anatomical substrate exists for communication between the superficial and deep layers of the colliculus. Connections such as these may underlie the transfer of visual information from neurons in the superficial layers to populations of neurons in the deep layers that respond prior to saccadic eye movements.


The Fontan operation in infants less than 2 years of age. Young age remains a reported risk factor for a successful Fontan operation despite improved survival rates. Since March 1978, the Fontan operation has been performed in 47 patients. To avoid a primary or secondary palliative shunt, an early Fontan procedure (Group 1: mean age 1.5 +/- 0.5 years, range 0.6 to 2) has been performed in 17 children with the outcome similar to that of the remaining 30 older patients (Group 2: mean age 7.5 +/- 5 years, range 2.4 to 23 years). Preoperatively both groups had acceptable hemodynamic status for a successful Fontan result. Operative variables including cardiopulmonary bypass time, aortic cross-clamp time and core temperature were similar between groups and did not affect mortality. The postoperative mortality rate including early surgical (0% vs. 13%, respectively), late (18% vs. 12%) and total (18% vs. 23%) was similar between Groups 1 and 2 (p greater than 0.05). Immediate postoperative arrhythmias were more frequent in Group 1 (71% vs. 25%, p less than 0.01) with no related mortality, while late arrhythmias occurred with equal frequency (29% vs. 39%, p greater than 0.05). Group 1 infants required a longer hospital stay (22 +/- 9 vs. 14 +/- 5 days, p less than 0.01). Thus, young age is not a risk factor for successful outcome of the Fontan operation in patients with acceptable preoperative hemodynamic status. An early Fontan operation may also avoid prolonged palliative procedures and their potential deleterious effects.


Response of the pulmonary circulation to acetylcholine, calcitonin gene-related peptide, substance P and oral nicardipine in patients with primary pulmonary hypertension. Endothelium-dependent vasodilation of the pulmonary vascular bed was investigated in five patients with primary pulmonary hypertension. Three endothelium-dependent vasodilators (acetylcholine, calcitonin gene-related peptide and substance P [in two patients]) were infused sequentially into the right atrium, followed by nicardipine given orally during full hemodynamic monitoring. Acetylcholine, calcitonin gene-related peptide and substance P had no effect on pulmonary artery pressure, total pulmonary vascular resistance or cardiac output, although calcitonin gene-related peptide significantly decreased systemic arterial systolic pressure from 132 +/- 34 to 113 +/- 33 mm Hg. In contrast, oral nicardipine decreased total pulmonary vascular resistance from 23 +/- 12 to 13 +/- 8 U, with a concomitant increase in cardiac output from 3.1 +/- 1 to 4.7 +/- 2 liters.min-1 and decrease in systemic vascular resistance from 30 +/- 9 to 13 +/- 4 U. Thus, despite the presence of a reversible component in these five patients with primary pulmonary hypertension, pulmonary vascular resistance did not decrease in response to the infused endothelium-dependent vasodilator agents, indicating that endothelium-dependent vasodilation is impaired in these patients.


Connective tissue-activating peptide-III and its derivative, neutrophil-activating peptide-2, release histamine from human basophils. Connective tissue-activating peptide-III (CTAP-III) is a 9 kd platelet alpha-granule-derived growth factor. It stimulates the synthesis of DNA, hyaluronic acid, glycosaminoglycans, and proteoglycan core protein in human fibroblasts. Human mononuclear cell-derived proteases have been previously demonstrated to digest the N-terminal 15 residues of CTAP-III (total, 85 residues) to produce neutrophil-activating peptide-2 (NAP-2). CTAP-III and NAP-2 belong to a class of proteins (platelet factor 4, interleukin-8/NAP-1, etc.) associated with inflammation and wound repair. In our efforts to purify human mononuclear cells and platelet-derived histamine-releasing factors, we had previously discovered that mixtures of CTAP-III and NAP-2 released histamine from human basophils. We have now developed simple protocols for the purification of CTAP-III and NAP-2, independently, from calcium ionophore (A23187)-stimulated platelet supernatants by affinity chromatography and have established their identity by sodium dodecyl sulfate-polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis and N-terminal sequence analysis. Each of these related histamine between 2 and 10 micrograms/ml, a range identical to that obtained with CTAP-III/NAP-2 mixtures that we reported earlier. Thus, our data suggest that CTAP-III and NAP-2 independently release histamine from human basophils in dose ranges similar to ranges required for fibroblast stimulation by each.


Class I-specific antibodies inhibit proliferation in primary but not secondary mouse T cell responses. Murine T and B splenocytes were incubated with antibodies that recognize CD3 or surface IgM. These antibodies induced proliferation of their respective target cells. Once stimulated via their receptors, the proliferation of both CD4+ and CD8+ T but not B lymphocytes was inhibited by class I-specific antibodies or their monovalent Fab' fragments. The inhibition of proliferation was dependent on the site on class I molecules recognized by the antibodies used, with the alpha 1/alpha 2 domains of H-2K molecules representing the major site for inhibition. Only soluble antibody-mediated proliferation could be inhibited by class I-directed antibodies; proliferation induced by CD3-specific antibody immobilized on plastic was not inhibited. Primary allogeneic MLR was also inhibited by class I-specific antibodies. In contrast, neither secondary allogeneic MLR, secondary Ag-specific responses, nor proliferation of CTL clones or tumor cell lines were inhibited by class I-specific antibodies. These results suggest a role for class I molecules in regulation of TCR/CD3- but not surface IgM-mediated cell signaling, which depends on the form of stimulation and the stage of differentiation of T cells.


Differential costimulatory effects of adhesion molecules B7, ICAM-1, LFA-3, and VCAM-1 on resting and antigen-primed CD4+ T lymphocytes. Optimal proliferation of T cells although initiated via ligation of the CD3/TCR complex requires additional stimulation resulting from adhesive interactions between costimulatory receptors (R) on T cells and their counter-R on APC. At least four distinct adhesion molecules (counter-R) present on APC, B7, ICAM-1 (CD54), LFA-3 (CD58), and VCAM-1 have been individually shown to costimulate T cell activation. Because some of these molecules may be expressed simultaneously on APC, it has been difficult to examine relative contributions of individual counter-R during the induction of T cell proliferation. We have produced soluble IgC gamma 1 fusion chimeras (receptor globulins or Rg) of B7, ICAM-1, LFA-3, and VCAM-1 and compared their relative abilities to costimulate proliferation of resting or Ag-primed CD4+ T cells. When co-immobilized with mAb directed at TCR alpha beta or CD3 but not CD2 or CD28, each Rg induced proliferation of both resting and Ag-primed CD4+ cells. In contrast, similarly co-immobilized CD7 Rg or ELAM-1 Rg were ineffective. Resting CD4+ T cells produced more IL-2, expressed significantly higher levels of IL-2R alpha, and proliferated more efficiently when costimulated with either ICAM-1 Rg or VCAM-1 Rg than with B7 Rg or LFA-3 Rg. CD4+ CD45RO+ memory T cells proliferated more vigorously in response to the costimulation by each of the four Rg than CD4+ CD45RA+ naive T cells. In contrast with the behavior of resting CD4+ T cells, proliferation of Ag-preactivated CD4+ T cells was most efficient when costimulated by B7 Rg. The costimulatory effect of LFA-3 Rg on Ag-primed CD4+ T cells was weaker than that of B7 Rg but was significantly greater than that of either ICAM-1 Rg or VCAM-1 Rg. These results suggest that resting and Ag-primed CD4+ T cells preferentially respond by proliferation to different costimulatory counter-R. ICAM-1 and VCAM-1 may be involved in the initiation of proliferation of Ag-responsive T cells, and B7 and LFA-3 may facilitate sustained proliferation of Ag-primed T cells. The cumulative costimulation by the above counter-R may facilitate optimal expression of various regulatory and effector functions of T cells.


Membrane Ig cross-linking regulates phosphatidylinositol 3-kinase in B lymphocytes. Cross-linking of the B cell AgR results in activation of mature B cells and tolerization of immature B cells. The initial signaling events stimulated by membrane immunoglobulin (mIg) cross-linking are tyrosine phosphorylation of a number of proteins. Among the targets of mIg-induced tyrosine phosphorylation are the tyrosine kinases encoded by the lyn, blk, fyn, and syk genes, the mIg-associated proteins MB-1 and Ig-beta, phospholipase C-gamma 1 and -gamma 2, as well as many unidentified proteins. In this report we show that mIg cross-linking also regulates phosphatidylinositol 3-kinase (PtdIns 3-kinase), an enzyme that phosphorylates inositol phospholipids and plays a key role in mediating the effects of tyrosine kinases on growth control in fibroblasts. Cross-linking mIg on B lymphocytes greatly increased the amount of PtdIns 3-kinase activity which could be immunoprecipitated with anti-phosphotyrosine (anti-tyr(P) antibodies. This response was observed after mIg cross-linking in mIgM- and mIgG-bearing B cell lines and after cross-linking either mIgM or mIgD in murine splenic B cells. Thus, regulation of PtdIns 3-kinase is a common feature of signaling by several different isotypes of mIg. This response was rapid and peaked 2 to 3 min after the addition of anti-Ig antibodies. The anti-Ig-stimulated increase in PtdIns 3-kinase activity associated with anti-Tyr(P) immunoprecipitates could reflect increased tyrosine phosphorylation of PtdIns 3-kinase, increased activity of the enzyme, or both. In favor of the first possibility, the tyrosine kinase inhibitor herbimycin A blocked the increase in ant-Tyr(P)-immunoprecipitated PtdIns 3-kinase activity as well as the anti-Ig-induced tyrosine phosphorylation. Moreover, this response was not secondary to phospholipase C activation but rather seemed to be a direct consequence of mIg-induced tyrosine phosphorylation. Activation of the phosphoinositide pathway by a transfected M1 muscarinic acetylcholine receptor expressed in WEHI-231 B lymphoma cells did not increase the amount of PtdIns 3-kinase activity which could be precipitated with anti-Tyr(P) antibodies. Similarly, inhibition of the phosphoinositide pathway did not abrogate the ability of mIg cross-linking to stimulate this response. Thus, mIg-induced tyrosine phosphorylation regulates PtdIns 3-kinase, an important mediator of growth control in fibroblasts and potentially an important regulatory component in B cells as well.


CD2/LFA-3 ligation induces phospholipase-C gamma 1 tyrosine phosphorylation and regulates CD3 signaling. Activation of T cells through the TCR/CD3 receptor complex with either specific Ag or antibody results in tyrosine phosphorylation of intracellular protein substrates and phosphatidylinositol-phospholipase C (PLC) signaling, leading to the generation of PI breakdown products and the mobilization of intracellular calcium. Stimulation of the T cell surface receptor CD2 similarly propagates early signals through phosphatidylinositol-PLC activation. Previous reports have shown that CD3 activation leads to tyrosine phosphorylation of the PLC isozyme PLC gamma 1. In this report, we investigated the potential similarity between CD3-induced signaling through PLC gamma 1 and that induced by CD2. We show that stimulation of CD2 receptors on T cells caused tyrosine phosphorylation of PLC gamma 1. Cross-linking of CD2 with CD3 receptors augmented the phosphorylation of PLC gamma 1 on tyrosine, whereas ligation of the CD45 tyrosine phosphatase with CD2 receptors prevented PLC gamma 1 tyrosine phosphorylation. T cells stimulated by ligation of CD2 with its counter-receptor in the form of a soluble LFA-3/Ig fusion protein cross-linked on the cell surface, resulted in a low, but detectable level of PLC gamma 1 phosphorylation with prolonged kinetics, whereas that induced by cross-linking with anti-CD2 was stronger but transient. Co-ligation of LFA-3/Ig with suboptimal concentrations of anti-CD3 resulted in profound augmentation of PLC gamma 1 tyrosine phosphorylation, mobilization of intracellular calcium and T cell proliferation. To explore the relationship between CD3- and CD2-stimulated signaling, T cells were desensitized through 1 h incubation with anti-CD3. CD3 receptor modulation potently down-regulated CD2-induced PLC gamma 1 tyrosine phosphorylation and calcium mobilization. In contrast, PMA or ionomycin treatment did not alter CD2-stimulated tyrosine phosphorylation of PLC gamma 1, suggesting that tyrosine kinase inhibition by CD3 receptor modulation was not caused by signaling events downstream of PLC gamma 1. Taken together, these results support the hypothesis that CD2 provides a potent co-stimulatory signal for CD3-induced T cell activation that is associated with tyrosine kinase(s) and PLC gamma 1.


Antigen-specific stimulation of T cell extracellular acidification by MHC class II-peptide complexes. A specific T cell response to a preformed complex of detergent-solubilized MHC class II molecule and cognate antigenic peptide was observed by monitoring the extracellular acidification. An increase in this rate was observed when the resting 4R3.9 T cell clone specific for the peptide fragment MBP(1-14) of myelin basic protein was exposed to preformed detergent-solubilized IAk-MBP(1-14)A4 complexes. MBP peptide alone, IAk alone, or complexes of IAs-proteolipid protein(139-151) and IAd-OVA(323-339), did not cause significant increases in the acidification rates of the MBP(1-14)-restricted 4R3.9 T cell clone. In addition, BW 5147 T lymphoma cells, which lack TCR, did not show any increase in rate when exposed to IAk-MBP(1-14)A4 complexes. Similar increases in acidification rate were observed in the presence of IL-2, anti-CD3 and anti-TCR antibodies. The enhanced acidification responses were blocked by genistein, a tyrosine kinase inhibitor.


Linear epitope mapping of an Sm B/B' polypeptide. Autoantibodies binding the Sm B/B' peptides are commonly associated with SLE. IgG antibodies binding overlapping octapeptides of Sm B/B' have been evaluated in 10 patients with anti-Sm and anti-nRNP precipitins, 5 patients with other autoimmune serology, and 4 normal human sera. Neither normal controls nor patients without an anti-Sm precipitin significantly bind any of the Sm B/B' octapeptides. All sera tested containing an anti-Sm precipitin strongly bind octapeptides from eight regions of the Sm B/B' sequence. Three of these eight regions share the same octapeptide sequences (PPPGMRPP) that are consistently the most immunoreactive octapeptides from Sm B/B'. Binding of the similar PPPGIRGP, as well as binding to deletion and substitution peptides, suggest that the motif PPPG(I,M) (R,K) appears to best define this binding. Interestingly, PAPGMRPP in the nRNP C peptide is as antigenic as PPPGMRPP and may provide a partial explanation for the cross-reactivity shown between Sm and nRNP autoantibodies. However, the sequence, PPPGMIPP, from nRNP A is not antigenic. These data define the linear sequence autoantigenicity of the Sm B/B' protein. They also demonstrate that the predominant autoimmune epitope is a proline-rich sequence from which limited variance is permitted before antigenicity is destroyed.


Identification of thyroiditogenic epitope on porcine thyroid peroxidase for C57BL/6 mice. C57BL/6 mice show thyroid lesions when immunized with porcine thyroid peroxidase (pTPO) emulsified in CFA. We attempted to clarify a thyroiditogenic epitope on pTPO. Thyroid peroxidase treated with cyanogen bromide was fractionated by reverse phase chromatography, and six fractions (A to F) were obtained. Two of these fractions (D and E) stimulated lymph node cells (LNC) primed with pTPO in vitro and induced thyroiditis in vivo. Tricine-SDS-PAGE and rechromatography showed that fraction D consisted solely of a fragment of Mr 9500 Da and that fraction E contained mainly fragments of Mr of 5400 and 9500 Da. The fragment of fraction D was rechromatographed and 20 NH2-terminal amino acids were analyzed. This segment was found to correspond to residue 726-745 of pTPO deduced from cDNA at a probability of 80%. Four peptides ranging from residue 746-827 were first synthesized and tested for their thyroiditogenicity. Only Pep-2 (29 amino acids) could stimulate LNC primed with pTPO and induce thyroiditis. Pep-2 was divided into two smaller peptides (Pep-2-1 and -2-2) and their thyroiditogenicity was tested again. Pep-2-1 corresponding to residue 774-788, GPA-QITCTPRGWDSP, had thyroiditogenicity as well as the ability to stimulate LNC. It was thought that this segment was at least one of the thyroiditogenic epitopes on porcine thyroid peroxidase for C57BL/6 mice.


Characterization of proteoglycan-reactive T cell lines and hybridomas from mice with proteoglycan-induced arthritis. Hyperimmunization with chondroitin sulfate-depleted fetal human cartilage proteoglycan (HFPG) leads to the development of peripheral arthritis and spondylitis in BALB/c mice. Chondroitin-sulfate-depleted adult human cartilage proteoglycan (HAPG) is much less effective at inducing arthritis. These observations suggest age differences in the presence of arthritogenic proteoglycan (PG) epitopes. Earlier studies from this laboratory have indicated an important role for PG-reactive T cells in the pathogenesis of this arthritis model. To investigate further the cellular immunity to PG in mice, two T cell lines, JY.A and JY.D, and two T cell hybridomas, TH5 and TH14, were isolated from mice with PG-induced arthritis and characterized. Two patterns of reactivity to PG emerged from the analysis of these T cells. One pattern, as demonstrated by the T cell line JY.D and the two T cell hybridomas, TH5 and TH14, was characterized by reactivity to HFPG, HAPG, chondroitin sulfate-depleted bovine cartilage PG, the G1 domain (hyaluronate binding region) of bovine cartilage PG and bovine link protein. The epitope(s) recognized by these T cells appear to be part of the homologous regions shared between the G1 domain and the link protein. The second pattern of reactivity, as demonstrated by the T cell line JY.A, was characterized by reactivity to HFPG but not to HAPG or the other PG Ag or bovine link protein. All the T cell lines and hybridomas had a CD4+, CD8- phenotype, possibly belonged to the TH1 subset (IL-2+, IL-4-), and were MHC class II restricted. These studies indicate that HFPG has T cell epitopes in common with HAPG (such as in the G1 domain) and different than those in HAPG. The significance of this data in terms of PG structure, changes with age, and induction of arthritis remains to be established.


Histamine-containing cells obtained from the nose hours after antigen challenge have functional and phenotypic characteristics of basophils. The pattern of mediators and appearance of cells that stain with alcian blue during human experimental early and late phase allergic reactions suggest that basophils accumulate in nasal secretions within hours of local Ag stimulation. To further explore whether the histamine containing cells that enter the nose after Ag challenge are mast cells or basophils, we studied their functional and phenotypic characteristics. Approximately 24 h after intranasal Ag provocation of subjects with allergic rhinitis, nasal lavage was performed, and the cells were isolated for degranulation studies, analysis of surface Ag, and viability. The average histamine content per alcian blue staining cell was 0.78 +/- 0.2 pg (n = 7), similar to that reported for peripheral blood basophils. Nasal cells were challenged in vitro with anti-IgE, ragweed Amb a I, and FMLP and their responses were compared to those of peripheral blood basophils isolated simultaneously from the same donors. Nasal leukocytes released histamine maximally at 0.1 micrograms/ml of anti-IgE (35.8 +/- 7.8%, n = 7) and responded to FMLP (25.4 +/- 9.9%, n = 7). The response of the cells to ragweed Amb a I and anti-IgE was attenuated compared to peripheral blood basophils. Anti-IgE-induced histamine release was calcium and temperature dependent. Dual color immunofluorescence and flow cytometric analysis of the recovered nasal cells coexpressed CD18, a leukocyte marker not expressed by mast cells. The nasal cells consistently had high levels of spontaneous histamine release (19.5 +/- 2.0%, n = 22). The viability of all cells, assessed by erythrosin B dye exclusion, was 70 +/- 2% (n = 15). However, the viability of IgE-bearing cells was only 28.3 +/- 5.7% (n = 4). The characteristics of histamine release and the nature of the cellular surface markers provide functional proof that the histamine-containing cells accumulating after nasal Ag challenge are basophils and not mast cells.


Mapping of T helper cell epitopes by using peptides spanning the 19-kDa protein of Mycobacterium tuberculosis. Evidence for unique and shared epitopes in the stimulation of antibody and delayed-type hypersensitivity responses. In vivo and in vitro T cell responses to overlapping 20-mer peptides that span the entire 19-kDa protein of Mycobacterium tuberculosis have been compared in three different strains of mice. Immunization of the mice with peptides and analysis of specific antibody production is an in vivo assay of Th cell activity. Peptides 1-20 and 61-80 elicited strong IgG1 responses in BALB/cJ, C57BL/10J, and B10.BR mice, indicating that these peptides could stimulate Th cells, possibly of a Th2 phenotype. T cells isolated from peptide-immunized mice were challenged in vitro with peptide, and their proliferative responses were analyzed. T cells from these three strains of mice immunized with peptides 1-20, 61-80, and 76-95 also responded to challenge with specific peptide in vitro. In addition, B10.BR mice and BALB/cJ mice showed antibody and T cell proliferative responses to peptides 136-155 and 145-159, respectively. Thus, in vitro proliferating T cells were found to possess specificities for peptide epitopes that were almost identical to those of the antibody-producing cells. Delayed-type hypersensitivity (DTH) responses to these peptides were also examined in the three strains. Interestingly, the T cells responding in the DTH assay had Ag specificities that were quite different from those identified in the antibody and proliferation assays. These results suggested that DTH Th cells form a separate population from antibody Th and proliferative T cells and these populations of cells were differentially activated, in an Ag-specific manner.


Studies of the effect of cyclosporine in psoriasis in vivo: combined effects on activated T lymphocytes and epidermal regenerative maturation. Cyclosporine (CSA) decreases lymphokine synthesis and keratinocyte proliferation in vitro, but its in vivo mechanism of action in treating recalcitrant psoriasis is incompletely understood. Ten psoriasis patients were treated with CSA (2-7.5 mg/kg/d) with clinical improvement in nine of 10 patients. Skin biopsies before and after 1-3 months of CSA treatment were studied for evidence of immune and keratinocyte activation using immunoperoxidase and Northern blotting analysis. The number of activated, IL-2 receptor+ T cells in plaques after CSA treatment was reduced in all patients by a mean of 60%. Seven of 10 patients showed a decrease in keratinocyte HLA-DR expression; five of seven showed a decrease in gamma-IP-10 immunoreactivity, suggesting a decline in gamma interferon levels in plaques after CSA therapy. We studied the effect of CSA treatment in vivo on TGF-alpha, IL-6, and keratin K16 expression, three markers of keratinocyte growth activation. Expression of keratinocyte TGF-alpha and IL-6, which are elevated in active psoriatic epidermis, did not change in these patients after CSA treatment. The majority of patients (five of eight) continued to express the hyperproliferative keratin K16 after CSA treatment. Our results suggest that the predominant direct mechanism of action of Cyclosporine in vivo is a diminution of T-cell activation in plaques, with attendant decreased lymphokine production.


Acute or chronic topical retinoic acid treatment of human skin in vivo alters the expression of epidermal transglutaminase, loricrin, involucrin, filaggrin, and keratins 6 and 13 but not keratins 1, 10, and 14. Histologic and immunocytochemical analyses were performed on cutaneous biopsies from 10 patients treated with retinoic acid under occlusion for 4 d compared to biopsies from 19 patients treated nightly for 16 weeks. Acute application of RA caused epidermal thickening (9 of 10 samples), stratum granulosum thickening (7 of 10), parakeratosis (4 of 10), a marked increase in the number of cell layers expressing epidermal transglutaminase (7 of 10), and focal expression of two non-epidermal keratins, K6 (8 of 10) and K13 (2 of 10), changes also observed with chronic treatment. Involucrin, filaggrin, and loricrin were also altered in samples from both acute and chronic treatment. An increased number of cell layers expressed both involucrin and filaggrin from both the acute (7 of 10) and chronic (14 of 19) treatment groups. In the acute group, loricrin expression was significantly reduced or absent in some regions of the epidermis (5 of 10), whereas most chronic samples showed an increased number of cell layers expressing loricrin (12 of 19). The pattern of expression of three major epidermal differentiation products, keratins K1, K10, and K14, was not significantly altered in any of the acute or chronic samples, although there was a slight reduction in the detection of K10 in two of the acute samples. Thus, acute topical RA treatment under occlusion caused substantial changes in the epidermis, and reproduced most, but not all of the effects of chronic treatment.


Effect of in vivo interleukin-1 on adhesion molecule expression in normal human skin. We have examined the expression of three endothelial adhesion molecules (intercellular adhesion molecule-1 [ICAM-1], endothelial leukocyte adhesion molecule-1 [ELAM-1], and vascular cell adhesion molecule-1 [VCAM-1]) in normal human skin following intradermal injection of stratum corneum-derived interleukin-1 alpha (SCIL-1 alpha). In control skin, constitutive expression of ICAM-1 was found on endothelial cells and at low levels on dermal dendritic cells but not on keratinocytes. ELAM-1 and VCAM-1 were present in low levels on endothelium and perivascular dendritic cells, respectively. SCIL-1 alpha injection produced marked endothelial ELAM-1 upregulation. Double staining with neutrophil elastase demonstrated that many ELAM-1-positive vessels contained marginating neutrophils and that interstitial neutrophils were clustered around ELAM-1-positive vessels. An increase in dermal dendritic cell ICAM-1 expression occurred and in two of three biopsies there was keratinocyte expression of ICAM-1 in the SCIL-1 alpha-injected tissue. Also, there was upregulation of VCAM-1 on vascular endothelium and an increase in the dermal dendritic cell expression of this molecule. These results give in vivo confirmation that SCIL-1 alpha modulated endothelial and dermal dendritic cell adhesion molecule expression, and show that endothelial VCAM-1 is regulated in vivo by SCIL-1 alpha, thus providing a regulatable ICAM-1-independent means of mononuclear cell recruitment.


Transforming growth factor beta inhibits the action of stem cell factor on mouse and human hematopoietic progenitors. In agar culture of post 5-fluorouracil mouse bone marrow cells (FUBM), recombinant rat stem cell factor (rrSCF) synergizes with granulocyte colony-stimulating factor (G-CSF), interleukin-3 (IL-3) or interleukin-6 (IL-6) to stimulate primitive progenitor cells (HPP-CFCs). The addition of recombinant human transforming growth factor beta (rhTGF-beta) to cultures of FUBM containing rrSCF plus rhG-CSF, rrSCF plus recombinant murine (rm)IL-3, or rrSCF plus rhIL-6 resulted in 100% inhibition of colony formation. Highly enriched populations of primitive bone marrow cells were obtained by isolating lineage negative (Lin-), Sca-1-positive (Sca-1+) cells from normal mouse bone marrow. RhTGF-beta inhibited 90% of colony formation stimulated by rrSCF plus rmIL-3 in agar culture of the Sca-1+ cells. RhTGF-beta also inhibited colony formation in agar culture of post FU human bone marrow cells. The synergistic increase in colony formation obtained with recombinant human SCF (rhSCF) plus rhGM-CSF and rhSCF plus rhIL-3 was inhibited by rhTGF-beta (approx. 60% and 87% inhibition, respectively). RhTGF-beta also totally inhibited the erythroid colony formation stimulated by rhSCF plus recombinant human erythropoietin (rhEpo). These data demonstrate that TGF-beta inhibits SCF-stimulated colony formation of mouse and human BM. This inhibition on progenitor cells appears to be a direct action of TGF-beta and is consistent with the target cells of SCF being more primitive progenitors than the CFCs stimulated by the CSFs alone.


[Field trial for the early detection of patients with ovarian cancer--discrimination of ovarian cancer patients by the statistical analysis using Mahalanobis' generalized distance]. Six tumor-associated antigens, cancer antigen 125 (CA125), tissue polypeptide antigen (TPA), ferritin (Fr), carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA), alpha fetoprotein (AFP), and sialyl Lex-i (SLX) were measured simultaneously for the early detection of ovarian cancer. To decrease the number of both false positive and false negative cases in the combination assay, statistical discrimination analysis employing the serum values for appropriate tumor markers has been studied with respect to ovarian cancer by the method of Mahalanobis' generalized distance. The new "ovarian cancer screening test" designed by us has been used in Shizuoka Prefecture since 1988, and 23,307 serum samples have been analyzed. One hundred twenty-seven of 165 ovarian cancer patients were suspected as having cancer by such clinical procedures as pelvic examination and/or ultrasonography, while in 150 patients cancer was detected by the statistical discrimination method. Thirty-one of 38 patients with ovarian cancer overlooked by the clinical procedures could be found by the statistical method. We conclude that clinical procedures and the statistical method can be complementary in detecting patients with this malignancy.


Beta 2 microglobulin on the envelope of urinary cytomegalovirus is not associated with host class I human leukocyte antigen alpha chain. Previous studies have shown that beta 2 microglobulin (beta 2m) is associated with glycoproteins present on the envelope of urinary human cytomegalovirus (CMV). beta 2m is non-covalently associated with the alpha chain of human leukocyte antigen (HLA) class I antigens and therefore it was of interest to determine whether the class I alpha chain is also associated with the beta 2m-CMV complex. Using a panel of monoclonal antibodies recognizing different conformational determinants on the HLA class I heterodimer or free beta 2m, we have shown that beta 2m but not the alpha chain of HLA class I could be immunoprecipitated from 125I-surface-labelled virions purified directly from urine. We therefore conclude that host class I HLA alpha chains are not associated with beta 2m on the envelope of urinary CMV.


Assessment of palliative response in hyperthermia. It is important that clinical studies of hyperthermia will be able to define its contribution to palliative therapy. A variety of validated methods has been developed for assessing palliative therapy but none have been used in clinical studies of hyperthermia. In the present paper some of the methods available for the assessment of palliative therapy are reviewed. The necessary criteria for assessment of instruments for palliation, as well as the choice of method, is discussed. A simple strategy is proposed: use established methods and take advice on which to choose; selectively add relevant items, should this be necessary; use assessments made by patients as well as by clinicians; use the test instruments at least three times (before, during and after treatment), and pre-test it on a small series of patients before embarking upon a major study. It is hoped that, by drawing attention to the availability of such methods for evaluating palliation, they might prove important in more accurately evaluating the role of hyperthermia in the palliative treatment of cancer.


Location of antigenic sites defined by neutralizing monoclonal antibodies on the S1 avian infectious bronchitis virus glycopolypeptide. Neutralizing monoclonal antibodies directed against five antigenic sites on the spike (S) S1 glycopolypeptide of avian infectious bronchitis virus (IBV) were used to select neutralization-resistant variants of the virus. By comparing the nucleotide sequence of such variants with the sequence of the IBV parent strain, we located five antigenic sites on the amino acid sequence of the S1 glycopolypeptide. The variants had mutations within three regions corresponding to amino acid residues 24 to 61, 132 to 149 and 291 to 398 of the S1 glycopolypeptide. The location of three overlapping antigenic sites on the IBV spike protein was similar to the location of antigenic sites on the spike protein of other coronaviruses.


Poliovirus antigenic hybrids simultaneously expressing antigenic determinants from all three serotypes. We have constructed six hybrid polioviruses (PVs) modified to express PV type 2 and type 3 antigenic determinants on a PV type 1 (Mahoney) capsid. The hybrids were modified in neutralizing antigenic site (NAg) I and/or NAgII. They were viable, but impaired for growth in comparison to PV1 (Mahoney). Some hybrids modified to express type 2 and type 3 NAgI determinants simultaneously displayed some type 2 but no type 3 antigenicity (in addition to type 1 antigenicity associated with other antigenic sites). Hybrids modified to express a type 2 NAgI determinant and a type 3 NAgII determinant, or vice versa, displayed antigenic characteristics of all three serotypes, although expression of the modified NAgII determinant was weak. We conclude that it is possible to construct a viable hybrid PV simultaneously modified in NAgI and NAgII which expresses antigenic determinants of all three serotypes.


Construction of solid matrix-antibody-antigen complexes containing simian immunodeficiency virus p27 using tag-specific monoclonal antibody and tag-linked antigen. We have previously shown that immunization with solid matrix-antigen-antibody (SMAA) complexes induces both vigorous humoral and cell-mediated immune responses and have suggested that this method of vaccination may be developed for use in humans, and potentially as a vaccine against AIDS. Here we demonstrate that a small oligopeptide can act as a tag for the construction of SMAA complexes using a tag-specific monoclonal antibody and tag-linked antigens. We show that a 14-amino acid oligopeptide, present in the phospho (P) and V proteins of simian virus 5 (SV5), retains its antigenicity when attached to the C terminus of three 'foreign' proteins [p27 and gp110 of simian immunodeficiency virus (SIV) and glutathione S-transferase] such that these proteins can be incorporated into SMAA complexes using a monoclonal antibody (MAb) that was originally raised against the native SV5 P and V proteins. Mice were immunized with SMAA complexes containing recombinant p27-TAG and MAbs have been isolated that recognized native SIV p27. The significance of these results in terms of the development of SMAA complexes as human vaccines is discussed.


Sulphate polyanions prolong the incubation period of scrapie-infected hamsters. The effect of the organic sulphated polyanions, pentosan sulphate (SP54), dextran sulphate 500 (DS500) and suramin, have been tested on golden Syrian hamsters infected with the 263K strain of scrapie by the intraperitoneal (i.p.) or the intracerebral route. SP54 had the greatest effect in prolonging the incubation period of the disease when administered within 2 h of the i.p. inoculum. The same amount of SP54 given 24 h after scrapie inoculation had a potent effect in some animals and no effect in others. This result suggests that SP54 inhibits the uptake of the scrapie agent into the nerve endings and/or carrier cells at the site of the inoculum, i.e. the peritoneum, and that this event occurs in about 24 h. DS500 had a similar although less potent effect (22.4 days delay during the incubation period) than SP54 (54.4 days) when administered within 2 h of scrapie injection by the i.p. route, and suramin had only a minimal effect (10 days). This study suggests that treatment of scrapie and related spongiform encephalopathies of animals and man is possible only before the agent has reached the clinical target areas of the brain.


Epitope mapping on fragments of beet necrotic yellow vein virus coat protein. The location of five SDS-stable epitopes on the coat protein (CP) of beet necrotic yellow vein virus was determined by reacting Escherichia coli-expressed free CP, as well as fusion proteins (FP) containing fragments of the CP, with polyclonal and monoclonal antibodies on Western blots. Epitope 1, which has previously been found to be exposed on only one extremity of the virus particle, was located in the region between amino acids (aa) 1 and 7, i.e. on the N terminus of the CP. It was blocked when the N terminus of the CP was linked to a portion of the beta-galactosidase sequence in an FP. Epitope 3, which has previously been found to be exposed on the opposite extremity of the particle, was located in the region between aa 37 and 59. Epitope 4, which is exposed along the entire length of the particle, occurs on the C terminus of CP (aa 183 to 188). Two previously unknown epitopes were identified in the regions between aa 115 and 125 and 125 and 140, respectively. The former was located on the same extremity of the particle as epitope 3, the latter became accessible only after denaturation of the particle. Nothing is known about the probably non-adjacent aa sequences that participate in the formation of the two SDS-labile epitopes (epitopes 2 and 5) which are found on one extremity and along the entire length of the particle, respectively.


Down-regulation of vesicular stomatitis virus transcription by the matrix protein of influenza virus. The matrix (M1) protein isolated from influenza A/WSN/33 virus, when reconstituted with ribonucleoprotein (RNP) cores of vesicular stomatitis virus (VSV), resulted in inhibition of VSV transcription in vitro. The presence of endogenous wild-type (wt) or mutant (tsO23) VSV matrix (M) protein on RNP cores did not prevent down-regulation of VSV transcription by reconstituted influenza virus M1 protein. In fact, endogenous VSV wt M protein augmented transcription inhibition by M1 protein reconstituted with RNP/M protein cores, whereas mutant tsO23 M protein endogenous to RNP cores had no effect on down-regulation of VSV transcription by M1 protein. These data suggest that VSV M protein and influenza virus M1 protein recognize two different sites on RNP cores responsible for down-regulation of VSV transcription. Monoclonal antibodies (MAbs) directed to epitope 2 of M1 protein had been previously shown to reverse transcription inhibition by M1 protein on influenza virus RNP cores, but the same epitope 2-specific MAb had little effect on transcription inhibition by M1 protein reconstituted with VSV RNP cores. VSV M protein bears a striking resemblance biologically and genetically to the M1 protein, including, as shown here, their capacity to bind viral RNA. However, the VSV wt M protein exhibited no capacity to down-regulate transcription by influenza virus RNP cores. The significance of these studies is the identification on VSV RNP templates of at least two separate sites for recognition of protein factors that repress VSV transcription.


Molecular cloning and development analysis of a new glutamate receptor subunit isoform in cerebellum. The glutamate receptor gene GluR-4 is proposed to generate two spliced isoforms (Sommer et al., 1990). Screening a rat cerebellar cDNA library, we have now identified a third type of transcript derived from GluR-4 gene by differential RNA processing. This transcript encodes a protein with a "flop" module between transmembrane regions 3 and 4, but with a C-terminus segment of 36 amino acids different from the previously described GluR-4 flip/flop cDNAs. This subunit was therefore designated as GluR-4c flop. Transcripts synthesized in vitro from GluR-4c cDNA form kainate/AMPA-activated channels when expressed in Xenopus oocytes. The current-voltage relationship for kainate-evoked responses in oocytes injected with GluR-4c showed strong inward rectification. The different transcripts derived from the GluR-4 gene were studied on Northern blots hybridized with either a cDNA probe or oligonucleotides specific for the GluR-4 flip/flop and C-terminal domains. Three transcripts of 6.2, 4.2, and 3.0 kilobases (kb) derived from the GluR-4 gene were identified on Northern blots containing total RNA prepared from different brain regions, using a cDNA probe or an oligonucleotide corresponding to the N-terminal region common to all transcripts. These transcripts were much more abundant in the cerebellum than in other brain areas, and their levels increased during cerebellar development. The maximal increase was observed between postnatal days 1 and 20, an age corresponding to the division and maturation of granule neurons. The flip/flop and the C-terminal oligonucleotides hybridized to the two higher molecular weight transcripts but did not hybridize to the small RNA. Interestingly, using cerebellar cells that were cultured for up to 12 d, we observed that the three transcripts are present in granule neurons, but that astrocytes only express the 6.2 and the 4.2 kb transcripts. The 3.0 kb transcript accumulates in cerebellar granule cells during development in vitro. Furthermore, in situ hybridization histochemistry revealed that the GluR-4c transcripts are preferentially expressed in cerebellar granule cells and Bergmann glial cells, whereas the expression of GluR-4 flip mRNAs is restricted to Bergmann glial cells. Interestingly, we also show that granule cells already express GluR-4c in the premigratory zone of the external granular layer, indicating that intrinsic or highly localized cues induce GluR-4c expression before these cells reach their final position.


Expression of tenascin in the developing and adult cerebellar cortex. Since tenascin may influence neuronal cell development, we studied its expression pattern using immunocytochemistry, in situ hybridization, Northern blot analysis, and immunochemistry in the developing and adult mouse cerebellar cortex. Tenascin immunoreactivity was detectable in all layers of the developing cerebellar cortex. In the external granular layer, only the radially oriented processes of Golgi epithelial cells were immunoreactive, whereas the densely packed cell bodies were immunonegative. Tenascin was hardly detectable at contact sites between migrating granule cells and processes of Golgi epithelial cells. Axons of granule cells in the molecular layer were immunoreactive, whereas their cell bodies in the internal granular layer lacked detectable levels of tenascin. By in situ hybridization, only Golgi epithelial cells and astrocytes of the internal granular layer and prospective white matter, but not nerve cells, could be shown to synthesize detectable levels of tenascin mRNA in the developing mouse cerebellar cortex. Thus, tenascin in the cerebellar cortex seems to be a glia-derived molecule that becomes adsorbed to neuronal surfaces in a topographically restricted pattern in situ. Levels of tenascin protein and mRNA decreased significantly with increasing age. In the adult, tenascin immunoreactivity was weak and mainly restricted to the molecular layer and tenascin mRNA was confined to Golgi epithelial cells, indicative for a functional heterogeneity in differentiated cerebellar astrocytes. Quantitative immunoblot analysis revealed that the 225 and 240 kDa components of tenascin were developmentally downregulated at a faster rate than the 190 and 200 kDa components, corresponding to the faster downregulation of the 8 kilobase (kb) mRNA species compared to the 6 kb mRNA species as revealed by Northern blot analysis. These observations indicate a differentially regulated expression of the tenascin components. We hypothesize that glia-derived tenascin modifies the functional properties of nerve cell surfaces and that tenascin is involved in such different morphogenetic events as neurite growth and oligodendrocyte distribution.


An actin-associated protein present in the microtubule organizing center and the growth cones of PC-12 cells. The pathfinding ability of the growth cone depends upon the integrity of a dynamic actin filament network. However, although a number of actin-binding proteins have been found in growth cones, it is not known how these proteins come to be concentrated there or how they might interact to produce these important actin filaments. In this report, an actin-associated protein recognized by the monoclonal antibody 2E4 is demonstrated to be present in PC-12 cells. In undifferentiated cells, this protein is present in an apparently inactive state in a perinuclear location that corresponds to that of the microtubule organizing center and not of the Golgi apparatus. Conversely, after NGF-induced differentiation, the antigen is found enriched in the neurite and growth cone and disappears from the perinuclear position. This disappearance is directly proportional to the length of the neurite. The antigen-antibody complex binds the ends of actin filaments in vitro in an ATP-sensitive manner, and the antibody stains the outermost edge of the actin filament ruffle in the leading edge of migrating fibroblasts. Hence, it is possibly involved in the membrane-associated polymerization of actin filaments such as that observed in growth cones.


Increased GABAA receptor binding in superficial layers of cingulate cortex in schizophrenics. Recent investigations of postmortem brain from schizophrenic patients have revealed reduced numbers of neurons in several different corticolimbic brain regions. In the prefrontal and anterior cingulate cortices, more specific decreases in the numbers of interneurons, but not pyramidal cells, have been reported to occur preferentially in layer II. Based on this latter finding, a loss of inhibitory basket cells leading to a compensatory upregulation of the GABAA receptor has been hypothesized to occur in schizophrenic patients and to be a contributory factor in the pathophysiology of this disorder. We now report the results of a high-resolution quantitation of GABAA receptor binding in anterior cingulate cortex of postmortem specimens from normal and schizophrenic cases. The results indicate a preferential increase in bicuculline-sensitive 3H-muscimol binding on neuronal cell bodies of layers II and III, but not layers V and VI, of the schizophrenic cases. There was no difference in the size of neurons in any of the layers examined when the control and schizophrenic groups were compared. The neuropil of layer I also showed significantly greater GABAA binding in schizophrenics. The differences seen in the schizophrenic group did not appear to be the result of exposure to antipsychotic medication because one patient who was medication naive and a second who had received minimal exposure to antipsychotic drugs also showed elevated GABAA receptor binding. Since information processing depends on corticocortical integration in outer layers I-III, a disturbance of inhibitory activity in these superficial layers of limbic cortex may contribute to the defective associative function seen in schizophrenia.


Hollow microspheres for use as a floating controlled drug delivery system in the stomach. Hollow microspheres (microballoons), loaded with drug in their outer polymer shells, were prepared by a novel emulsion-solvent diffusion method. The ethanol:dichloromethane solution of drug (tranilast or ibuprofen) and an enteric acrylic polymer were poured into an agitated aqueous solution of polyvinyl alcohol that was thermally controlled at 40 degrees C. The gas phase generated in the dispersed polymer droplet by the evaporation of dichloromethane formed an internal cavity in the microsphere of the polymer with the drug. The drugs incorporated in the solidified shell of the polymer were found to be partially or completely amorphous. The flowability and packability of the resultant microballoons were much improved compared with the raw crystals of drug. The microballoons floated continuously over the surface of acidic dissolution media containing surfactant for greater than 12 h in vitro. The drug release behavior of the microballoons was characterized as an enteric property, and drug release rates were drastically reduced depending on the polymer concentration at pH 6.8.


Modulation of human basophil histamine release by protein kinase C inhibitors differs with secretagogue and with inhibitor. To assess possible involvement of protein kinase C (PKC) in human basophil degranulation, the present work compared effects of various purported PKC inhibitors on leukocyte histamine release triggered by different stimuli. The effects recorded varied with the inhibitor and the secretagogue used; moreover, with a given secretagogue, different inhibitors often displayed different activities. Thus, histamine release triggered by the PKC activator 4 beta-phorbol 12-myristate 13-acetate was blocked by K252a, staurosporine and the purported specific PKC inhibitor Ro 31-7549, and reduced by calphostin C, H-7, TMB-8 and W-7 but not affected by polymyxin B; it was augmented by 2.1 microM palmitoyl carnitine. The leukocyte response induced by another putative activator of PKC, 1,2-isopropylidene-3-decanoyl-sn-glycerol, was also enhanced by 2.1 microM palmitoyl carnitine, slightly increased by staurosporine, TMB-8 and W-7 but not affected by calphostin C, H-7, K252a or Ro 31-7549, whereas the hyperosmolar mannitol-induced response was reduced by H-7, calphostin C, TMB-8 and W-7 and slightly augmented by staurosporine. Anti-IgE-induced histamine release was blocked by staurosporine and K252a and reduced by calphostin C, sphingosine, TMB-8 and W-7 but not affected by H-7, polymyxin B or retinal. It was enhanced by Ro 31-7549. In contrast, leukocyte histamine release induced by calcium ionophore A23187 or by ionomycin was blocked by retinal, TMB-8 and W-7 and reduced by calphostin C and palmitoyl carnitine but enhanced by H-7, staurosporine and polymyxin B; K252a and Ro 31-7549 did not affect such responses. Formyl-methionyl-leucyl-phenylalanine-triggered histamine release was barely affected by any agent used. Thus, the specific PKC inhibitor Ro 31-7549 selectively blocked 4 beta-phorbol 12-myristate 13-acetate-triggered leukocyte histamine release. These results imply that examined secretagogues trigger human leukocyte histamine release through partly separate pathways probably involving different kinase activities (PKC isozymes?). Moreover, the distinct effect patterns recorded for most purported PKC inhibitors imply a functional selectivity between these compounds.


Amplification of alpha adrenergic vasoconstriction in canine isolated mesenteric artery and vein. The interactions between UK-14304 and other vasoconstrictor agents were investigated using isolated canine mesenteric vascular rings mounted in tissue baths for the measurement of isometric contraction. In the mesenteric artery, exposure to UK-14304 caused a small contraction, producing 8% of the KCl maximal response. In the presence of either 20 mM KCl or 10(-9) M endothelin-1, which had small contractile effects, UK-14304 produced a biphasic concentration-response curve; 10(-7) M rauwolscine inhibited the responses to low concentrations of UK-14304 and 10(-7) M prazosin blocked the responses to high concentrations of UK-14304. In the presence of 10(-8) M Bay K 8644, UK-14304 elicited a monophasic concentration-dependent contraction that was antagonized by 10(-7) M prazosin, not by 10(-7) M rauwolscine. In the mesenteric vein, UK-14304 elicited concentration-dependent contractions, producing 63% of the KCl maximal response. The lower part of the biphasic concentration-response curve was inhibited by 10(-7) M rauwolscine and the upper part of the curve was antagonized by 10(-7) M prazosin. The presence in the medium of 20 mM KCl, 10(-11) M endothelin-1 or 10(-9) M Bay K 8644, which increased resting tension less than 10% of the KCl maximal response, markedly enhanced the responses to UK-14304 primarily at concentrations lower than 10(-6) M. The enhancement of responses were prazosin (10(-7) M)-resistant and rauwolscine (10(-7) M)-sensitive.(ABSTRACT TRUNCATED AT 250 WORDS)


alpha-Amino-3-hydroxy-5-methylisoxazole-4-propionate/kainate receptor antagonists in the nucleus accumbens and ventral pallidum decrease the hypermotility response to psychostimulant drugs. The purpose of this study was to determine the role of alpha-amino-3-hydroxy- 5-methylisoxazole-4-propionate (AMPA)/kainate excitatory amino acid receptors in the nucleus accumbens and the ventral pallidum in the hypermotility responses to amphetamine, caffeine and scopolamine. To accomplish this, we determined the effects of intracranial injections of 6,7-dinitroquinoxaline-2,3-dione (DNQX) and gamma-D-glutamylaminomethyl-sulfonate (GAMS), which inhibit the responses to AMPA, quisqualate and kainate in electrophysiological and behavioral studies. The bilateral administration of either DNQX (1 micrograms/0.5 microliters) or GAMS (5 micrograms/0.5 microliters) into the nucleus accumbens inhibited the locomotor stimulation produced by amphetamine (0.5 mg/kg s.c.) but not by caffeine (20 mg/kg s.c.) or scopolamine (0.5 mg/kg s.c.). However, the bilateral administration of either of the two antagonists into the ventral pallidum inhibited the response to all three stimulants. The administration of 6-amino-7-fluroquinoxaline-2,3-dione, a chemical analog of DNQX that does not bind to AMPA receptors, into either the nucleus accumbens or the ventral pallidum did not inhibit the locomotor stimulation produced by amphetamine. Neither DNQX nor GAMS injected into either the nucleus accumbens or the ventral pallidum produced significant changes in the locomotor activity of animals not injected with the stimulants. These results suggest that activation of AMPA/kainate receptors in the nucleus accumbens is important in the stimulation of locomotion produced by amphetamine, whereas activation of these receptors in the ventral pallidum is involved in the hypermotility response to all three central nervous system stimulants.


Dipeptidyl(amino)peptidase IV and aminopeptidase M metabolize circulating substance P in vivo. Recent studies have demonstrated that Fischer-344 rats from Japanese Charles River Inc. specifically lack dipeptidyl(amino)peptidase IV (DAP IV-negative; EC 3.4.14.5), whereas Fischer-344 rats from sources within the United States (DAP IV-positive) possess normal DAP IV activity. In the present study, plasma from DAP IV-positive rats metabolized substance P (SP) (5.37 +/- 0.25 nmol/min/ml) via the actions of angiotensin-converting enzyme (EC 3.4.15.1) (1.86 +/- 0.50 nmol/min/ml) and DAP IV (2.56 +/- 0.42 nmol/min/ml). DAP IV sequentially converted SP to SP[3-11] and SP[5-11]. The SP[5-11] metabolite was then rapidly hydrolyzed by plasma aminopeptidase M (AmM; EC 3.4.11.2) (36.2 +/- 4.2 nmol/min/ml). In contrast, SP metabolism by plasma from DAP IV-negative rats was less than half that of control animals (2.14 +/- 0.06 nmol/min/ml), due to a complete lack of DAP IV hydrolysis. The absence of DAP IV was not associated with any differences in angiotensin-converting enzyme-mediated hydrolysis of SP (1.45 +/- 0.11 nmol/min/ml) or AmM-mediated hydrolysis of SP[5-11] (37.1 +/- 0.9 nmol/min/ml). Consistent with this deficiency in SP metabolism, SP was more potent in vivo in stimulating salivary secretion in DAP IV-negative rats compared to DAP IV-positive animals. Potentiation was specific in that SP[5-11], an SP fragment resistant to DAP IV, was equipotent in DAP IV-negative and positive animals. SP[5-11]-induced salivary secretion was potentiated in both strains when AmM-mediated hydrolysis was inhibited by amastatin (20 nmol/min, i.v.). These data provide direct evidence for a significant role for DAP IV and AmM in the in vivo processing of SP and active SP metabolites.


The effects of FK-506, a novel and potent immunosuppressant, upon murine Coxsackievirus B3 myocarditis. To test the therapeutic efficacy of immunosuppression with FK-506 upon coxsackievirus B3 myocarditis, C3H/He mice were inoculated with coxsackievirus B3, and the effects of FK-506 were compared to those of cyclosporine. FK-506 (2.5 mg/kg/day) or cyclosporine (25 mg/kg/day) was administered s.c. daily on days 0 to 14 (experiment I) and on days 14 to 28 (experiment II). In experiment I, the survival rate of the FK-506 or cyclosporine-treated group was significantly lower compared with that of the untreated, control group. However, the score of myocardial cellular infiltration in both treated groups was lower compared to the control. On day 14, myocardial virus was not detected in the control group, but was present in both treated groups. Serum neutralizing antibody titers on day 14 in FK-506 group were lower than in the control group. In experiment II, survival rate did not differ significantly among the three groups. Serum-neutralizing antibody titers on day 21 in FK-506 group were lower than in the control. Histologically, marked cellular depletion in the thymus and spleen was evident in FK-506 groups; in cyclosporine groups, it was only evident in the thymus. Thus, FK-506 induced immunosuppression in coxsackievirus B3 myocarditis, associated with a high mortality, notwithstanding the reduction of myocardial cellular infiltration in the acute stage when immune mechanisms play a role in the pathogenesis of the disease. With respect to the dosage, the immunosuppressive action of FK-506 in vivo is at least 10-fold stronger compared to that of cyclosporine.


Bay K-8644 in different solvents acts as a transient calcium channel antagonist and a long-lasting calcium channel agonist. This report describes the effect of Bay K-8644 dissolved in various solvents on two types of calcium channel currents in neuroblastoma cells. Transient calcium channel (T channel) currents were not affected by Bay K-8644 dissolved in ethanol (EtOH) or polyethylene glycol (PEG). However, at the same concentration of 0.6 microM, Bay K-8644 dissolved in dimethylsulfoxide (DMSO) (Bay K-8644/DMSO) decreased the T channel current by 50%. The concentration of all three solvents in the bath was fixed at 0.3% to reach different final concentrations of Bay K-8644. At this fixed solvent concentration, the inhibitory effect of Bay K-8644/DMSO on T channel currents was dose-dependent; the solvents alone did not have any effect on T channel currents; and DMSO pretreatment of cells did not render the T channel current sensitive to Bay K-8644 dissolved in EtOH or PEG. Bay K-8644/DMSO was dried using a flash evaporator and redissolved in EtOH or PEG. Dried Bay K-8644 that was redissolved in EtOH or PEG to achieve a final concentration of 0.6 microM inhibited T channel currents by 39 or 35%, respectively. Furthermore, Bay K-8644 (10 nM) increased L channel currents by 80% with DMSO, but only 30% with EtOH as the solvent. These results show that in neuroblastoma cells Bay K-8644/DMSO, within the concentration range examined, is a T channel antagonist and more effective L channel agonist than Bay K-8644 dissolved in the two other solvents.


[The sensitivity and specificity of various peroxidase stains--the difference between DAB and 3AC stainings]. FAB Cooperative Group has cited 3 or higher percentage in the peroxidase (PO) activity as one of criteria for the diagnosis of acute myeloid leukemia. We have previously reported in two cases of acute myelomonocytic leukemia (M4) that there was a great difference between 3,3'-diaminobenzidine (DAB) and 3-amino 9-ethyl carbazole (3AC) as substrates for PO reaction. In order to confirm the previous result, we extended the cases and compared the PO activities in blood films taken from several leukemic subjects, which were fixed with various kinds of fixatives, using DAB and 3AC as substrates. Their peroxidase activities were also determined through electron microscopy (EM-PO). There were no differences among fixatives and substrates in staining normal granulocytic cells (neutrophils and monocytes) and cells in 13 cases of leukemia, except for two cases, one with M4 and the other with relapse of M2. These showed the highest PO activity with 3AC staining and 10% formaldehyde acetone buffer for fixation. Besides, all types manifested the highest positivity in EM-PO, except for the relapse of M2 that showed a higher positivity in the peroxidase stain by 3AC staining, 10% formaldehyde acetone buffer fixation than the EM-PO. Unlike other leukemic blasts PO reaction products of blast cells of the two cases showed a scattered distribution of microscopic granules. These findings suggested the difference, which was seen in the previous reports, of the PO stain between two substrates might be due not only to sensitivity for staining but to the presence of some heterogeneity such as isoenzyme in the myeloperoxidase.


Surface immunoglobulin density in the differential diagnosis of B-cell chronic lymphocytic leukemia and leukemic immunocytoma. Using flow cytometry peripheral blood samples of 37 consecutive patients with B-cell chronic lymphocytic leukemia (B-CLL) and 17 consecutive patients with leukemic immunocytoma (IC) were studied in order to determine quantitative differences in the surface immunoglobulin (slg) density. In 8/37 (21.6%) cases of B-CLL and 1/17 (5.9%) cases of IC slg staining remained in the control level. Analysis of slg-positive cases demonstrated a close association between the amount of slg and diagnosis: per case the mean calculated fluorescence intensity for IC lymphocytes was 209.7 arbitrary linear intensity units (IU) (median: 156.4, standard error of the mean (SEM): 53.7) and for B-CLL lymphocytes 10.8 IU (median: 7.3, SEM: 1.1; p less than 0.0001). Altogether, 94.6% of all B-CLL patients and 76.5% of all IC patients were correctly classified when a cut-off point was fixed at a mean fluorescence intensity value of 20.0 IU. The percentage of leukemic cells as characterized by CD19 and HLA-DR reactivity was significantly lower in cases of IC (p less than 0.03 and p less than 0.01, respectively). In both entities disease progression occurred more frequently in advanced stages (II-IV) according to the Rai classification (p less than 0.01). In progressive disease rather than in stable disease circulating T lymphocytes were shown to express decreased amounts of surface CD3 antigen (p less than 0.02). We conclude that the quantitative assessment of surface antigens in addition to their qualitative characterization provides accurate information. In particular, the diagnostic discrimination between B-CLL and IC may be improved by determining the lymphocytes' slg amount.


Neoplastic basophil/mast cell precursors from chronic myelogenous leukemia display heterogeneous responses for a hematopoietic factor. The response of neoplastic basophil/mast cell precursors to various hematopoietic factors was examined. Blastic or promyelocytic immature cells were obtained from six patients in basophilic crisis of chronic myelogenous leukemia. In all cases, after 14 days suspension culture more then 90% of the cells had basophilic features. 3H-thymidine uptake was markedly increased by the addition of GM-CSF in two cases, G-CSF in one, and IL-3 in two. In clonogenic cell assays, numerous colony formations were obtained when using the same growth factors as in the 3H-thymidine uptake assay. In addition, IL-3 induced colony formation in one case, despite a lack of thymidine uptake IL-4 had a synergistic effect on colony formation with IL-3 in one other case. None of the factors used showed any effect on differentiation. These findings indicate that the proliferation of neoplastic basophil/mast cell precursors may be regulated by various growth factors but response patterns are divergent.


Sustained, substantially increased concentration of prostate-specific antigen in the absence of prostatic malignant disease: an unusual clinical scenario. A 60-year-old man had a persistent, marked increase in the serum concentration of prostate-specific antigen (more than 20 times the upper limit of the reference range) and no identifiable prostatic malignant involvement. To our knowledge, this is the first such case reported in the literature. Possible explanations for this increased value are described, and nonmalignant conditions that can increase serum concentrations of prostate-specific antigen are reviewed.


Neurofilament epitopes in thymoma and antiaxonal autoantibodies in myasthenia gravis. Expression by neoplastic thymic epithelial cells of acetylcholine-receptor (AChR) epitopes is associated with the presence of AChR autoantibodies and the development of myasthenia gravis. We studied thymic tumours from patients with and without myasthenia gravis for the expression of neurofilament epitopes by immunohistochemistry with four monoclonal antibodies. There was very little antibody binding in control samples (healthy thymus, or thymitis) or in medullary and mixed thymomas, but neurofilament epitopes were strongly expressed in all cortical thymomas and thymic carcinomas. In addition, the frequency of serum autoantibodies against axons was significantly higher among myasthenic patients with thymic epithelial tumours than among age-matched controls (7/10 vs 3/50; p less than 0.01).


Neoadjuvant chemotherapy in multiple synchronous head and neck and esophagus squamous cell carcinomas. A consecutive series of 22 patients with multiple synchronous squamous cell carcinomas of the upper aerodigestive tract was retrospectively reviewed. These patients were treated initially with cis-platinum combination chemotherapy before definitive locoregional therapy (surgery and/or radiation therapy). Sixteen of 21 patients had simultaneous head and neck and esophageal primaries, 3 patients had multiple synchronous head and neck primaries, 2 patients had head and neck (HN) and a bronchial epidermoid cancer, and 1 patient had simultaneous esophageal and bronchial carcinomas of epidermoid lineage. Sixteen (77%) of the 21 patients responded to chemotherapy in all the tumor sites evaluated, and a clinically complete response was obtained in 6 (29%). After definitive locoregional treatment, the complete local control rate was 68%, with 34 complete responses for 50 primary tumor sites in 21 patients. Twelve patients were free of disease after locoregional treatment. Six patients are still alive 27 to 57 months after complementary definitive locoregional treatment and a minimum follow-up of 27 months. Median survival for the overall group is 17 months. The response to chemotherapy is remarkable, which may be due to the small tumoral volume present in many of the cases (T1 to T2). Nevertheless, the present report stresses the importance of an aggressive combined therapeutic approach in this difficult clinical situation.


Recent developments in the understanding of bradykinin receptors. The dramatic activities of bradykinin and related peptides as mediators of pain, inflammation and hypotension have been intensely studied for several decades. More recently, the involvement of bradykinin in regulation of ion transport by epithelia, hormone release from endocrine organs, energy metabolism, tissue growth, and leukocyte activation have become topics of study. Kininogen precursors, synthetic kallikreins, and degradative kininases have been characterized in detail with regard to catalytic mechanisms, physical structure and gene regulation; however, the actual receptors for bradykinin are still only poorly understood. This situation is caused by the lack of availability of potent, specific receptor antagonists. However, specific bradykinin receptor antagonists became available in 1985, and several very potent classes of agents are now available; also, the first bradykinin receptor has been cloned.


Central-type benzodiazepines modulate GABAA receptor chloride channels in cultured pituitary melanotrophs. The effects of gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) and benzodiazepines on the electrical activity of cultured frog melanotrophs were studied using the patch-clamp technique. In the cell-attached configuration, the exposure to GABA caused a blockage of the spontaneous firing. In the whole-cell configuration, with physiological chloride concentrations, GABA evoked a hyperpolarization associated with a decrease of membrane resistance, generating an inward chloride current. Clonazepam, a central-type benzodiazepine agonist, potentiated the GABA-induced current and the resulting hyperpolarization. In addition, the benzodiazepine inverse agonist Ro 19-4603 totally abolished GABA-induced hyperpolarizing chloride current. Since the pars intermedia of the frog pituitary is composed of a 'pure' population of endocrine cells enriched with GABAA receptors, our results indicate that these cells represent a valuable model in which to investigate the electrophysiological effects of ligands for the GABAA benzodiazepine receptor complex.


Elevation of cyclic AMP levels in cell lines derived from latently infectable sensory neurons increases their permissivity for herpes virus infection by activating the viral immediate-early 1 gene promoter. Immortalized cell lines derived from sensory neurons are relatively non-permissive for lytic infection with herpes simplex virus (HSV) and fail to transcribe the viral immediate-early genes following infection. Treatment of these cells with agents which raise the intra-cellular level of cyclic AMP results in increased activity of the IE1 gene which contains a cyclic AMP response element within its promoter and produces a consequent increase in permissivity for HSV infection. The significance of these effects for the regulation of HSV infection of neuronal cells are discussed in the light of the finding that cyclic AMP treatment can reactivate latent HSV infections.


De novo production of alpha 2-macroglobulin in cultured astroglia from rat brain. Previous studies from our laboratory demonstrated that alpha 2-macroglobulin (alpha 2M) is one of the neurite-promoting factors in the conditioned medium of astroglia. In the present study, we further examined the de novo production of alpha 2M in cultured astroglia by determining the expression of alpha 2M mRNA, and the biosynthesis of [35S]methionine-labeled alpha 2M protein. We analyzed the mRNA of cultured astroglia by differential hybridization using specific probes to alpha 2M and its homologous protein, alpha 1-inhibitor 3 (alpha 1I3), after amplification of reverse-transcribed cDNA with the polymerase chain reaction. The result clearly showed that only alpha 2M mRNA is expressed in cultured astroglia. Northern blotting analysis revealed that alpha 2M mRNA is expressed mainly in the astroglia and is not detected in neurons, microglia and meningeal fibroblasts. Furthermore, the biosynthesis of alpha 2M protein in the astroglia was confirmed by an immunoprecipitation experiment after labeling of each type of cell with [35S]methionine. It was concluded that alpha 2M is produced in the cultured astroglia which is the major source of alpha 2M production among various types of cells in rat brain.


Changes in relative levels of specific brain mRNA species associated with schizophrenia and depression. Total cellular polyadenylated RNA (poly(A)+ RNA, mRNA) was prepared after guanidinium thiocyanate extraction of frozen brain tissue from age-matched controls and patients suffering from schizophrenia and unipolar depression. These mRNA populations were analysed by in vitro translation followed by two-dimensional gel analysis. Data were obtained from fluorograms derived from 10 different schizophrenic patients, 10 different controls and 5 different depressive patients. The relative concentrations of mRNA species coding for 4 translation products (33 kDa, pI 5.8; 26 kDa, pI 5.8; 35 kDa, pI 7.1; 23 kDa, pI 6.1) were significantly reduced in schizophrenia compared to controls when determined by computerised image analysis of the fluorograms. In the case of depression, the relative concentrations of mRNA species coding for 6 translation products were significantly altered, 4 being increased (38 kDa, pI 6.2, 17 kDa, pI 5.7, 35 kDa, pI 7.1; 23 kDa, pI 6.1) and two decreased (34 kDa, pI 6.2; 33 kDa, pI 5.8). Three translation products were altered in both schizophrenia and depression, one (33 kDa, pI 5.8) being altered according to the same trend, a decrease relative to controls, but two (35 kDa, pI 7.1; 23 kDa, pI 6.1) being altered differently in schizophrenia (reduced) and depression (increased). The effects of post mortem delay, mode of death and drug treatment on mRNA composition were also examined and found not to affect the levels of these translation products significantly. The significance of these changes will be discussed in relation to their relevance of biological mechanisms in the psychoses.


Time course of enkephalin mRNA and peptides in cultured rat adrenal medulla. Explantation of rat adrenal medullae to organ culture results in dramatic changes in enkephalins and catecholamines that are similar to the changes seen in vivo in response to denervation, which eliminates transsynaptic impulse activity. We have used rapid and sensitive solution hybridization methods to measure preproenkephalin (PPenk) mRNA and total cellular RNA in samples from rat tissues and adrenal medullary explants. The profiles of adrenal medullary PPenk mRNA, enkephalin-containing (EC) peptides, total cellular RNA and catecholamines [epinephrine (epi) and norepinephrine (norepi)] were measured during 14 days of organ culture. After 8 h in culture, total RNA had declined by 60%, epi and norepi declined 80 to 85% and EC peptides by 50% while the amount of PPenk mRNA per gland increased by 400%. Between 8 h and 14 days total RNA and catecholamine levels remained constant while PPenk mRNA increased to a peak of 85 +/- 10 (S.E.M.) pg/gland at 2-4 days, a value that was 80 times greater than the zero time (preculture) values. EC peptide levels lagged behind the increase in PPenk mRNA and reached a peak of 25 +/- 4 (S.E.M.) pmol Met-enkephalin equivalents/gland at 4 days that was 80 times greater than zero time values. Both PPenk mRNA and EC peptides declined in parallel between 4 and 14 days. The ratio of the copies of proenkephalin (Penk) peptide to PPenk mRNA was estimated to be 25,000 at the time of explantation and after 4 days in culture. From steady-state kinetics half-life estimates of 9.6 h for PPenk mRNA and 14.7 h for Penk peptide were obtained.(ABSTRACT TRUNCATED AT 250 WORDS)


Gene expression of the insulin-like growth factors and their receptors in cultured human retinal pigment epithelial cells. Insulin-like growth factors I and II (IGF I and II) are polypeptides with both growth-promoting and insulin-like metabolic effects. Immunoreactive IGF I is present in the retina and both IGF I and II are present in vitreal fluid. The type I and type II IGF receptors are also localized within the neural retina. The presence of IGFs and IGF receptors within the eye suggests a possible growth-promoting effect of IGFs on ocular tissues. IGF may enter the eye from the blood or, alternatively, arise from an ocular cell type which synthesizes and secretes IGF. IGF I and II mRNA synthesis in scleral cells and IGF I synthesis in rat retina suggests endogenous IGF production in the eye. We hypothesized that IGFs and IGF receptors are synthesized by one ocular cell type, the retinal pigment-epithelium (RPE). As a first step in studying IGF production by the RPE, we analyzed expression of the IGF and IGF receptor genes by cultured human RPE cells. Using Northern analysis, RNase protection and reverse-transcriptase polymerase chain reaction (RT-PCR), we found that cultured RPE cells synthesize mRNA for IGF I and the type I and type II IGF receptors.


Acute lithium treatment enhances neuropeptide Y gene expression in rat hippocampus. It has been suggested that the therapeutic action of lithium in affective disorders may be due to its inhibition of signal transduction and second messenger synthesis, in particular of the phosphoinositide (PI) pathway. Yet, previous work in neuronal cell lines indicates that lithium has an enhancing effect on gene expression mediated by protein kinase C, which is activated by the PI pathway. In this report, we have analyzed the effect of lithium on two neuropeptide encoding genes that are regulated by second messenger systems; neuropeptide Y (NPY) and proenkephalin (Enk). We find that acute treatment with lithium, resulting in serum levels that are within the therapeutic range effective in patients with mood disorders, significantly enhances basal expression of the NPY gene in rat hippocampus. In contrast, no effect on Enk expression was detected. This selective effect in a limbic structure supports the hypothesis that gene expression may be an important target of lithium's therapeutic action.


Changes in immediate early gene expression during postnatal development of cat cortex and cerebellum. Postnatal brain development involves interactions between extracellular signals and preprogrammed genetic events. Immediate early genes (IEGs) are a group of genes that are induced by extracellular signals and their protein products alter transcription by binding regulatory elements in other genes. Using Northern and slot blot analysis of total RNA isolated from visual cortex, frontal cortex, and cerebellum of cats, we have determined the postnatal development patterns of mRNA expression for 5 of these genes, c-fos, erg-1, c-jun, jun-B, and c-myc. Each gene had a distinct developmental pattern of mRNA expression, and for a given gene, these patterns were often different in different brain structures. These results suggest that temporal changes in the combinatorial interaction of different IEGs during early postnatal life are important for normal brain development.


Expression of the proto-oncogene c-fos in three-dimensional fetal brain cell cultures and the lack of correlation with maturation-inducing stimuli. Previous work has shown that aggregating fetal brain cell cultures are able to attain a highly differentiated state, and that their development is greatly enhanced by growth and/or differentiation factors such as epidermal growth factor (EGF), basic fibroblast growth factor (bFGF), and the protein kinase C-activating tumor promoter mezerein. The present study shows that in these 3-dimensional cultures the peptide growth factors EGF and bFGF as well as mezerein are able to induce the expression of the proto-oncogene c-fos. This induction was rapid and transient, in good agreement with observations reported from a wide variety of cell types in vitro. The maximal levels of c-fos mRNA found after stimulation were low in immature cultures and increased greatly as maturation progressed. Of the three factors tested, mezerein was the most potent inducer of c-fos. In contrast to the peptide growth factors EGF and bFGF which were found to induce c-fos only in glial cells, mezerein was stimulatory in glial cells as well as in neurons. A similar cell type specificity has been observed previously for the maturation-enhancing response in immature aggregate cultures. However, in the present study no correlation was found between the degree of c-fos induction and the extent of the maturation-enhancing stimulation. Immature cultures known to be most sensitive and responsive to these maturation-enhancing agents required relatively high doses of peptide growth factors for the induction of c-fos, and the maximal levels of c-fos mRNA elicited were much lower than those in differentiated cultures which did not show any long-term response to these stimuli.(ABSTRACT TRUNCATED AT 250 WORDS)


Characterization of two cDNAs encoding insulin-like growth factor 1 (IGF-1) in the human fetal brain. Insulin-like growth factor 1 (IGF-1) regulates growth of the brain. In order to characterize the variant IGF-1 present in human fetal brain we have determined the cDNA sequence for human fetal brain IGF-1. Using PCR to amplify cDNA obtained from isolated human fetal brain mRNA, two cDNA sequences encoding precursor proteins which correspond to IGF-1a and IGF-1b were obtained. This is the first characterisation of IGF-1 and its IGF-1a and IGF-1b precursors in the nervous system.


P0 gene expression in Schwann cells is modulated by an increase of cAMP which is dependent on the presence of axons. The role of cAMP in the regulation of P0 gene expression was investigated in Schwann cells of normal, regenerated, and permanently transected rat sciatic nerve. Forskolin treatment of endoneurial segments of rat sciatic nerve resulted in increased cAMP and P0 mRNA levels in normal and regenerated nerves but not in permanently transected nerves, where axonal regeneration is prevented. This increase of cAMP and P0 mRNA occurred within 30 and 90 min, respectively. P0 mRNA levels in the endoneurial segment of the permanently transected nerve were not increased with dibutyryl cAMP. The Schwann cells of the permanently transected nerve, however, retained the ability to myelinate 15 embryonic day (E15) dorsal root ganglia (DRG) neuron and neurite networks cultured in vitro. P0 mRNA levels increased within 4 days in transected endoneurium segments cocultured with E15 DRG neurons and neurites and further increased in 21 day myelinating cocultures. Although cAMP was not detectable in 4 day cocultures, it increased to detectable levels in 21 day cultures, suggesting that cAMP is involved in the myelinating process. These results indicate that the presence of the axon is required for the observed increase of cAMP and P0 mRNA levels and suggest that the increase of cAMP occurs within the axon which then presumably activates a different Schwann cell second messenger pathway to induce P0 gene expression.


Chronic atropine administration up-regulates rat cortical muscarinic m1 receptor mRNA molecules: assessment with the RT/PCR. The modulation of the rat cortical m1 muscarinic receptor mRNA was studied with a method of quantitation using the polymerase chain reaction after conversion to complementary DNA (cDNA) with AMV reverse transcriptase (RT/PCR). Primers specific to the C3 region of the m1 mRNA were employed. The y-intercepts from the linear regions of semilogarithmic plots of PCR product versus cycle number were used as measures of the levels of m1 muscarinic mRNA-measured relative to that of glyceraldehyde phosphate dehydrogenase (GAPDH) mRNA (the 'ratio' method). Alternatively, m1 mRNA in total cortical RNA samples was quantitated from the increase in product elicited by adding a known amount of exogenous m1 muscarinic cDNA sequence (the 'spiking' method). This allowed calculation of absolute level of m1 mRNA, which was 4.1 pg/micrograms total RNA. We measured the level of the rat cortical m1 mRNA after 1 week of chronic receptor blockade with atropine, showing upregulation of 154% by the GAPDH/m1 ratio method and 145% by the spiking method. That this transcriptional alteration was specific was indicated by the finding that the level of GAP-43 mRNA was not affected by atropine treatment.


Identification and characterization of a large human brain gene whose expression is increased in Alzheimer disease. A cDNA clone that was isolated from a human substantia innominata cDNA library is described. By Northern hybridization analysis, a 15.5 kilobase (kb) transcript was identified by this clone in RNA samples from several brain regions, but not in RNA samples from white matter, liver or placenta. Hybridization to human genomic DNA revealed a pattern indicative of a single copy gene. DNA sequence analysis showed 3.0 kb of 3' untranslated region with no significant open reading frame. An additional cDNA clone, representing a section of an alternate form of this transcript, was isolated that contained an additional 1.5 kb at the 3' end. Using a nuclease protection assay, the expression of this gene was found to be increased by 30% in Alzheimer disease temporal cortex RNA samples compared to temporal cortex RNA samples from normal controls, but to be at equivalent levels in Alzheimer disease, as compared to normal control, substantia innominata RNA samples. This assay also showed that this gene was expressed at 3.5-fold higher levels in normal substantia innominata than in normal cerebellum. In situ hybridization analysis showed that the transcript could be detected in cerebellar neurons.


Isolation and characterization of a library of cDNA clones that are preferentially expressed in the embryonic telencephalon. In order to isolate genes involved in development of the mammalian telencephalon we employed an efficient cDNA library procedure. By subtracting an adult mouse telencephalic cDNA library from an embryonic day 15 (E15) mouse telencephalic cDNA library we generated two subtracted libraries (ES1 and ES2). We estimate that ES1 contains between 200 and 600 different cDNA clones, which approximates the number of genes that are preferentially expressed in the E15 telencephalon, compared to the adult telencephalon. Northern analysis of 20 different cDNA clones shows that 14 of these are expressed at least 5-fold more in the E15 telencephalon than the adult telencephalon. Limited sequencing of the 14 differentially expressed clones reveals that 10 have no significant identity to sequences in GenBank and EMBL databases, whereas the other 4 have significant sequence identity to vimentin, histone 3.3, topoisomerase I and the B2 repeat element. In situ hybridization using one of the differentially expressed cDNAs, TES-1, demonstrates that it is transiently expressed in the anlage of the basal ganglia. In situ hybridization with another differentially expressed cDNA clone, TES-4, shows that it is specifically expressed in differentiating cells of the neural axis with a distinctive rostral-caudal temporal pattern. These findings, and the methods that we have developed, provide a framework for future investigations of the genetic control of telencephalon development.


Characterization of the antigenic and adhesive properties of FaeG, the major subunit of K88 fimbriae. The two K88 serotypes, K88ab and K88ac, differ in terms of antigenic and adhesive properties. The structural determinants of the serotype-specific epitopes and the identify of the amino acid residues involved in fimbriae-receptor interaction were studied by the construction and analysis of K88 hybrid proteins in which various parts of the K88ab and K88ac fimbrial subunit FaeG were exchanged, and by in vitro mutagenesis of non-conserved amino acid residues. Using a set of monoclonal antibodies, several regions or amino acid residues involved in the formation of serotype-specific antigenic determinants were located. The haemagglutinating activity of the hybrid and mutant proteins revealed several amino acid residues involved in the formation of the receptor binding site. A clear correlation was found between the receptor binding site and the serotype-specific antigenic determinants.


The impact of recent advances in diagnostic technology on the clinical presentation of phaeochromocytoma. To examine the impact of recent advances in diagnostic technology on the spectrum of clinical and biochemical features of patients presenting with a new diagnosis of phaeochromocytoma. A retrospective review of the clinical and biochemical features of patients diagnosed by our laboratory as having phaeochromocytoma within a 27-month period up to December, 1990. Noradrenaline, adrenaline and dihydroxyphenylglycol were assayed in 24-hour urine specimens (19 patients) or plasma (1 anuric patient) by gas chromatography/mass spectrometry. A tertiary level chemical pathology department. Twenty patients with a new diagnosis of phaeochromocytoma. The classic, episodic adrenergic symptoms traditionally associated with phaeochromocytoma were absent in 9 of the 20 patients (45%). "Atypical" phaeochromocytoma presented as a mass on computed tomography imaging (6 patients, 30%), "phaeochromocytoma crisis" (4 patients, 20%) or family screening (1 patient, 5%). Excessive adrenaline production was found in 11 patients (55%) and six (30%) had predominantly adrenaline-secreting tumours. The urinary noradrenaline:dihydroxyphenylglycol ratio was raised in all nine patients with predominantly noradrenaline-secreting tumours but was not raised in nine out of ten patients with adrenaline-secreting phaeochromocytoma. Adrenaline excretion was significantly correlated with tumour size (r = 0.8; P less than 0.05). Advances in diagnostic technology, particularly specific adrenaline assays and computed tomography, have made possible the early diagnosis of patients with phaeochromocytoma presenting in ways previously thought to be uncommon. All patients with adrenal masses noted incidentally on CT scan should be investigated for phaeochromocytoma. Adrenaline-secreting tumours are common and both noradrenaline and adrenaline should be assayed in all patients investigated for phaeochromocytoma.