I've had to change my psychiatrist and seen a new one yesterday, and when I told him about my med induced hypomanic episode he said that since it was triggered by meds it doesn't mean I'm actually bipolar but I have tendencies for bipolar. This is good to hear actually (that I'm not actually bipolar), but the thing is I'm still on a mood-stabilizer(risperdal) and I don't really understand why I'm using a mood-stabilizer if I'm not actually bipolar. Anyone had a similar experience ? The last couple of months has been rough and this got me even more confused.