Romans 5:18 "Consequently, just as the result of one trespass was condemnation for all men, so also the result of one act of righteousness was justification that brings life for all men." Now if the second all does not mean all people, why does the first all mean all people? The words are the same in the Greek and in the understanding of the early Christians. (Bible quotes are from the NIV)
Rum 5:18 "Basi tena, kama kwa kosa moja watu wote walihukumiwa adhabu, kadhalika kwa tendo moja la haki watu wote walihesabiwa haki yenye uzima." Sasa kama ‘wote’ ya pili haimaanishi watu wote, kwa nini ‘wote’ ya kwanza imaanishe watu wote? Maneno ni yale yale kwenye Kigiriki na katika ufahamu wa Wakristo wa awali.