Regarding John 3:16 I would say this: why does every major English version not include the word "much" if they believed it should be translated as the Khmer has it? Is it for tradition only (keeping with the King James and Tyndale)?
On page 80, the definition of the word "យ៉ាកុប" does not make sense, "ម្នាក់ដែលមាននិយាយនៅក្នុង ១៥:៤០" but it should be written in this way "ម្នាក់ដែលបាននិយាយនៅក្នុងមាកុស ១៥:៤០"