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Nobody is suggesting he be referred to in the article as a ""pedo"" - which is just short for/slang for pedophile. Multiple reliable (non-tabloid) sources refer to him as a pedophile. What reliable sources support your claim that the term pedophile is being ""increasingly misused by the media to refer to a type of criminal"" and that it is being misused to refer to Ian Watkins? How exactly is it being misused? How does it not apply to Ian Watkins? YO 😜 "