Can you explain this options calls & puts quote table to me?
(Note: I am omitting the currency units.  While I strongly suspect it's US$ I don't know from the chart.  The system works the same no matter what the currency.) A call or a put is the right to sell (put) or buy (call) shares at a certain price on a certain day. This is why you see a whole range of prices.  Not all possible stock values are represented, the number of possibilities has to be kept reasonable.  In this case the choices are even units, for an expensive stock they may be spaced even farther apart than this. The top of the chart says it's for June.  It's actually the third Friday in the month, June 15th in this case.  Thus these are bets on how the stock will move in the next 10 days. While the numbers are per share you can only trade options in lots of 100. The left side of the chart shows calls.  Suppose you sell a call at 19 (the top of the chart)  The last such trade would have gotten you a premium of 9.70 per share (the flip side of this is when the third friday rolls around it will most likely be exercised and they'll be paying you only 19 a share for a stock now trading at something over 26.)  Note the volume, bid and ask columns though--you're not going to get 9.70 for such a call as there is no buyer.  The most anybody is offering at present is 7.80 a share. Now, lets look farther down in the chart--say, a strike price of 30.  The last trade was only .10--people think it's very unlikely that FB will rise above 30 to make this option worthwhile and thus you get very little for being willing to sell at that price.  If FB stays at 26 the option will expire worthless and go away.  If it's up to 31 when the 15th rolls around they'll exercise the option, take your shares and pay you 30 for them.  Note that you already gave permission for the trade by selling the call, you can't back out later if it becomes a bad deal. Going over to the other side of the chart with the puts: Here the transaction goes the other way, come the 15th they have the option of selling you the shares for the strike price.  Lets look at the same values we did before.  19?  There's no trading, you can't do it. 30?  Here you will collect 3.20 for selling the put.  Come the 15th they have the right to sell you the stock for 30 a share.  If it's still 26 they're certainly going to do so, but if it's up to 31 it's worthless and you pocket the 3.20 Note that you will normally not be allowed to sell a call if you don't own the shares in question.  This is a safety measure as the risk in selling a call without the stock is infinite.  If the stock somehow zoomed up to 10,000 when the 15th rolls around you would have to come up with the shares and the only way you could get them is buy them on the open market--you would have to come up with a million dollars.  If there simply aren't enough shares available to cover the calls the result is catastrophic--whoever owns the shares simply gets to dictate terms to you.  (And in the days of old this sometimes happened.)
"As JoeTaxpayer says, there's a lot you can do with just the stock price. Exploring that a bit: Stock prices are a combination of market sentiment and company fundamentals. Options are just a layer on top of that. As such, options are mostly formulaic, which is why you have a hard time finding historical option data -- it's just not that ""interesting"", technically. ""Mostly"" because there are known issues with the assumptions the Black-Scholes formula makes. It's pretty good, and importantly, the market relies on it to determine fair option pricing. Option prices are determined by: Relationship of stock price to strike. Both distance and ""moneyness"". Time to expiration. Dividends. Since dividend payments reduce the intrinsic value of a company, the prospect of dividend payments during the life of a call option depresses the price of the option, as all else equal, without the payments, the stock would be more likely to end up in the money. Reverse the logic for puts. Volatility. Interest rates. But this effect is so tiny, it's safe to ignore. #4, Volatility, is the biggie. Everything else is known. That's why option trading is often considered ""volatility trading"". There are many ways to skin this cat, but the result is that by using quoted historical values for the stock price, and the dividend payments, and if you like, interest rates, you can very closely determine what the price of the option would have been. ""Very closely"" depending on your volatility assumption. You could calculate then-historical volatility for each time period, by figuring the average price swing (in either direction) for say the past year (year before the date in question, so you'd do this each day, walking forward). Read up on it, and try various volatility approaches, and see if your results are within a reasonable range. Re the Black-Scholes formula,  There's a free spreadsheet downloadable from http://optiontradingtips.com. You might find it useful to grab the concept for coding it up yourself. It's VBA, but you can certainly use that info to translate in your language of choice. Or, if you prefer to read Perl, CPAN has a good module, with full source, of course. I find this approach easier than reading a calculus formula, but I'm a better developer than math-geek :)" "Your question indicates that you might have a little confusion about put options and/or leveraging.  There's no sense I'm aware of in which purchasing a put levers a position.  Purchasing a put will cost you money up front.  Leveraging typically means entering a transaction that gives you extra money now that you can use to buy other things.  If you meant to sell a put, that will make money up front but there is no possibility of making money later.  Best case scenario the put is not exercised.  The other use of the term ""leverage"" refers to purchasing an asset that, proportionally, goes up faster than the value of the underlying.  For example, a call option. If you purchase a put, you are buying downside protection, which is kind of the opposite of leverage.  Notice that for an American put you will most likely be better off selling the put when the price of the underlying falls than exercising it.  That way you make the money you would have made by exercising plus whatever optional value the put still contains.  That is true unless the time value of money is greater than the optional (insurance) value.  Since the time value of money is currently exceptionally low, this is unlikely.  Anyway, if you sell the option instead of exercising, you don't need to own any shares at all.  Even if you do exercise, you can just buy them on the market and sell right away so I wouldn't worry about what you happen to be holding. The rules for what you can trade with a cash instead of a margin account vary by broker, I think.  You can usually buy puts and calls in a cash account, but more advanced strategies, such as writing options, are prohibited.  Ask your broker or check their help pages to see what you have available to you." "Great answer by @duffbeer. Only thing to add is that the option itself becomes a tradeable asset. Here's my go at filling out the answer from @duffbeer. ""Hey kid... So you have this brand-new video game Manic Mazes that you paid $50 for on Jan 1st that you want to sell two months from now"" ""Yes, Mr. Video Game Broker, but I want to lock in a price so I know how much to save for a new Tickle Me Elmo for my baby sister."" ""Ok, for $3, I'll sell you a 'Put' option so you can sell the game to me for $40 in two months."" Kid says ""Ok!"", sends $3 to Mr Game Broker who sends our kid a piece of paper saying: The holder of this piece of paper can sell the game Manic Mazes to Mr Game Broker for $40 on March 1st. .... One month later .... News comes out that Manic Mazes is full of bugs, and the price in the shops is heavily discounted to $30. Mr Options Trader realizes that our kid holds a contract written by Mr Game Broker which effectively allows our kid to sell the game at $10 over the price of the new game, so maybe about $15 over the price in the second-hand market (which he reckons might be about $25 on March 1st). He calls up our kid. ""Hey kid, you know that Put option that Mr Game Broker sold to you you a month ago, wanna sell it to me for $13?"" (He wants to get it a couple of bucks cheaper than his $15 fair valuation.) Kid thinks:  hmmm ... that would be a $10 net profit for me on that Put Option, but I wouldn't be able to sell the game for $40 next month, I'd likely only get something like $25 for it. So I would kind-of be getting $10 now rather than potentially getting $12 in a month. Note: The $12 is because there could be $15 from exercising the put option (selling for $40 a game worth only $25 in the second-hand market) minus the original cost of $3 for the Put option. Kid likes the idea and replies: ""Done!"". Next day kid sends the Put option contract to Mr Options Trader and receives $13 in return. Our kid bought the Put option and later sold it for a profit, and all of this happened before the option reached its expiry date." "I think the question, as worded, has some incorrect assumptions built into it, but let me try to hit the key answers that I think might help: Your broker can't really do anything here.   Your broker doesn't own the calls you sold, and can't elect to exercise someone else's calls. Your broker can take action to liquidate positions when you are in margin calls, but the scenario you describe wouldn't generate them:  If you are long stock, and short calls, the calls are covered, and have no margin requirement.  The stock is the only collateral you need, and you can have the position on in a cash (non-margin) account.   So, assuming you haven't bought other things on margin that have gone south and are generating calls, your broker has no right to do anything to you. If you're wondering about the ""other guy"", meaning the person who is long the calls that you are short, they are the one who can impact you, by exercising their right to buy the stock from you.  In that scenario, you make $21, your maximum possible return (since you bought the stock at $100, collected $1 premium, and sold it for $120.  But they usually won't do that before expiration, and they pretty definitely won't here.  The reason they usually won't is that most options trade above their intrinsic value (the amount that they're in the money).    In your example, the options aren't in the money at all.   The stock is trading at 120, and the option gives the owner the right to buy at 120.* Put another way, exercising the option lets the owner buy the stock for the exact same price anyone with no options can in the market.  So, if the call has any value whatsoever, exercising it is irrational; the owner would be better off selling the call and buying the stock in the market." "The blue line is illustrating the net profit or loss the investor will realise according to how the price of the underlying asset settles at expiry. The x-axis represents the underlying asset price.  The y-axis represents the profit or loss. In the first case, the investor has a ""naked put write"" position, having sold a put option.  The strike price of the put is marked as ""A"" on the x-axis.  The maximum profit possible is equal to the total premium received when the option contract was sold.  This is represented by that portion of the blue line that is horizontal and extending from the point above that point marked ""A"" on the x-axis.  This corresponds to the case that the price of the underlying asset settles at or above the strike price on the day of expiry.  If the underlying asset settles at a price less than the strike price on the day of expiry, then the option with be ""in the money"".  Therefore the net settlement value will move from a profit to a loss, depending on how far in the money the option is upon expiry.  This is represented by the diagonal line moving from above the ""A"" point on the x-axis and moving from a profit to a loss on the y-axis.  The diagonal line crosses the x-axis at the point where the underlying asset price is equal to ""A"" minus the original premium rate at which the option was written - i.e., net profit = zero.  In the second case, the investor has sold a put option with a strike price of ""B"" and purchase a put option with a strike price ""A"", where A is less than B.  Here, the reasoning is similar to the first example, however since a put option has been purchase this will limit the potential losses should the underlying asset move down strongly in value. The horizontal line above the x-axis marks the maximum profit while the horizontal line below the x-axis marks the maximum loss. Note that the horizontal line above the x-axis is closer to the x-axis that is the horizontal line below the x-axis.  This is because the maximum profit is equal to the premium received for selling the put option minus the premium payed for buying the put option at a lower strike price.  Losses are limited since any loss in excess of the strike price ""A"" plus the premium payed for the put purchased at a strike price of ""A"" is covered by the profit made on the purchased put option at a strike price of ""A""." "Options have legitimate uses as a way of hedging a bet, but in the hands of anyone but an expert they're gambling, not investing. They are EXTREMELY volatile compared to normal stocks, and are one of the best ways to lose your shirt in the stock market yet invented. How options actually work is that you're negotiating a promise that, at some future date or range of dates, they will let you purchase some specific number of shares (call), or they will let you sell them that number of shares (put), at a price specified in the option contract. The price you pay (or are paid) to obtain that contract depends on what the option's seller thinks the stock is likely to be worth when it reaches that date. (Note that if you don't already own the shares needed to back up a put option, you're promising to pay whatever it takes to buy those shares so you can sell them at the agreed upon price.) Note that by definition you're betting directly against experts, as opposed to a normal investment where you're usually trying to ride along with the experts. You are claiming that you can predict the future value of the stock better than they can, and that you will make a profit (on the difference between the value locked in by the option and the actual value at that time) which exceeds the cost of purchasing the option in the first place.  Let me say that again: the option's price will have been set based on an expert's opinion of what the stock is likely to do in that time. If they think that it's really likely to be up $10 per share when the option comes due (really unlikely for a $20 stock!!!), they will try to charge you almost $10 per share to purchase the option at the current price. ""Almost"" because you're giving them a guaranteed profit now and assuming all the risk. If they're less sure it will go up that much, you'll pay less for the option -- but again, you're giving them hard money now and betting that you can predict the probabilities better than they can. Unless you have information that the experts don't have -- in which case you're probably committing insider trading -- this is a very hard bet to win. And it can be extremely misleading, since the price during the option period may cross back and forth over the ""enough that you'll make a profit"" line many times. Until you actually commit to exercising the option or not, that's all imaginary money which may vanish the next minute. Unless you are willing and able to invest pro-level resources in this, you'd probably get better odds in Atlantic City, and definitely get better odds in Las Vegas. If you don't see the sucker at the poker table, he's sitting in your seat. And betting against the guy who designed and is running the game is usually Not a Good Idea." A long put - you have a small initial cost (the option premium) but profit as the stock goes down. You have no additional risk if the shock rises, even a lot. Short a stock - you gain if the stock drops, but have unlimited risk if it rises, the call mitigates this, by capping that rising stock risk. The profit/loss graph looks similar to the long put when you hold both the short position and the long call.  You might consider producing a graph or spreadsheet to compare positions. You can easily sketch put, call, long stock, short stock, and study how combinations of positions can synthetically look like other positions. Often, when a stock has no shares to short, the synthetic short can help you put your stock position in place. "&gt; It just has to finish below the strike price of the short (which can be higher than the stock's current price).  You're talking about a put option.   That's one ""short"" strategy, but it's not shorting a stock, so the terminology is a little jumbled.   There are reasons to not do straight options, because they can be quite risky, and you have to get the time frame correct."