Google Finance gain value incorrect because of currency fluctuation
You can easily build a Google Sheet spreadsheet to track what you want as Sheet has a 'googlefinance()' function to look-up the same prices and data you can enter and track in a Google Finance portfolio, except you can use it in ways you want. For example, you can track your purchase price at a fixed exchange rate, track the current market value as the product of the stock's price times the floating exchange rate, and then record your realized profit and loss using another fixed exchange rate.  You don't have to record the rates either, as googlefinance() func is able to lookup prices as of a particular date. You can access Google Sheet through a web browser or Android app.
"Simple answer YES you can, there are loads here are some links : world first , Baydon Hill , IPF Just googling ""foreign currency mortgage"", ""international mortgage"", or ""overseas mortgage"" gets you loads of starting points.  I believe its an established and well used process, and they would be ""classified"" as a ""normal"" mortgage. The process even has its own wiki page Incidentally I considered doing it myself. I looked into it briefly, but the cost of fee's seemed to outweigh the possible future benefits of lower interest rates and currency fluctuations." "The ""risk"", other than losing principal (especially when rates go up) is capital gains. As with any mutual fund, this one might need to sell assets for cashflow. In which case the taxes on the sales are shifted to the investors. So you may end up with the fund losing value due to price fluctuations, yet you'll have capital gains (probably with a significant short term part since the maturity periods are relatively short) to pay taxes on. To what extent that may happen depends on the fund's cashflow (influx of money vs. withdrawals). Capital gains reduce your basis (since no money is actually distributed), but if you hold the fund for more than a year - you lose the difference between the short term and the long term tax for the short term portion of the gains." If you hold this money in USD and spend it in the US as USD, then there is no tax liability or reporting requirement at all.  You are not subject to any tax on foreign exchange gains and losses because you have not performed any foreign exchange.  CRA says a foreign exchange gain or loss happens when the fx transaction occurs—not as the currency’s value fluctuates while on deposit - and since you are never performing an fx transaction, no such issues will arise.  The CRA is not interested in how you spend your money, only the money that you earn.   The only possible tax liability that would arise in the circumstances that you describe would be the tax liability arising from interest earned while the cash in on deposit.  If this interest exceeds the threshold of reportability, then your bank will issue you with a T-slip to be included in your tax return. Many of the major indices retreated   today because of this news. Why? How   do the rising budget deficits and debt   relate to the stock markets? The major reason for the market retreating is the uncertainty regarding the US Dollar. If the US credit rating drops that will have an inflationary effect on the currency (as it will push up the cost of US Treasuries and reduce confidence in the USD). If this continues the loss of USD confidence could bring an end to the USD as the world's reserve currency which could also create inflation (as world banks could reduce their USD reserves). This can make US assets appear overvalued. Why is there such a large emphasis on   the S&P rating? S&P is a large trusted rating agency so the market will respond to their analysis much like how a bank would respond to any change in your rating by Transunion (Consumer Credit Bureau) Does this have any major implications   for the US stock markets today, in the   short term and in July? If you are a day-trader I'm sure it does. There will be minor fluctuations in the market as soon as news comes out (either of its extension or any expected delays in passing that extension). What happens when the debt ceiling is   reached? Since the US is in a deficit spending situation it needs to borrow more to satisfy its existing obligations (in short it pays its debt with more debt). As a result, if the debt ceiling isn't raised then eventually the US will be unable to pay its existing obligations. We would be in a default situation which could have devastating affects on the value of the USD. How hard the hit will depend on how long the default situation lasts (the longer we go without an increased ceiling after the exhaustion point the more we default on). In reality, Congress will approve a raise, but they will drag it out to the last possible minute. They want to appear as if they are against it, but they understand the catastrophic effects of not doing so. At this time, Google Finance doesn't support historical return or dividend data, only share prices.  The attributes for mutual funds such as return52 are only available as real-time data, not historical.   Yahoo also does not appear to offer market return data including dividends. For example, the S&P 500 index does not account for dividends--the S&P ^SPXTR index does, but is unavailable through Yahoo Finance. You are right: if the combined value of all outstanding GOOG shares was $495B, and the combined value of all GOOGL shares was $495B, then yes, Alphabet would have a market cap of at least $990B (where I say at least only because I myself don't know that there aren't other issues that should be in the count as well). The respective values of the total outstanding GOOG and GOOGL shares are significantly less than that at present though. Using numbers I just grabbed for those tickers from Google Finance (of course), they currently stand thus: No free lunch You cannot receive risk-free interest on more money than you actually put down. The construct you are proposing is called 'Carry Trade', and will yield you the interest-difference in exchange for assuming currency risk. Negative expectation In the long run one would expect the higher-yielding currency to devalue faster, at a rate that exactly negates the difference in interest. Net profit is therefore zero in the long run. Now factor in the premium that a (forex) broker charges, and now you may expect losses the size of which depends on the leverage chosen. If there was any way that this could reliably produce a profit even without friction (i.e. roll-over, transaction costs, spread), quants would have already arbitraged it away. Intransparancy Additionaly, in my experience true long-term roll-over costs in relation to interest are a lot harder to compute than, for example, the cost of a stock transaction. This makes the whole deal very intransparant. As to the idea of artificially constructing a USD/USD pair: I regret to tell you that such a construct is not possible. For further info, see this question on Carry Trade: Why does Currency Carry Trade work? I looked at this a little more closely but the answer Victor provided is essentially correct.  The key to look at in the google finance graph is the red labled SMA(###d) would indicate the period units are d=days.  If you change the time axis of the graph it will shift to SMA(###m) for period in minutes or SMA(###w) for period in weeks.  Hope this clears things up!