What is a “convertible note”?
Source, see if you have access to it Convertible notes are often used by angel investors who wish to fund businesses without establishing an explicit valuation of the company in which they are investing.    When an investor purchases equity in a startup, the purchase price of the equity implies a company valuation.  For example, if an investor purchases a 10 per cent ownership stake in a company, and pay $1m for that stake, this implies that the company is worth $10m. Some early stage investors may wish to avoid placing a value on the company in this way, because this in turn will affect the terms under which later-stage investors will invest in the company.  Convertible notes are structured as loans at the time the investment is made.  The outstanding balance of the loan is automatically converted to equity when a later equity investor appears, under terms that are governed by the terms set by the later-stage equity investor.  An equity investor is someone who purchases equity in a company. Example:- Suppose an angel investor invests $100,000 using a convertible note.  Later, an equity investor invests $1m and receives 10% of the company's shares.  In the simplest possible case, the initial angel investor's convertible note would convert to 1/10th of the equity investor's claim.  Depending on the exact structure of the convertible note, however, the angel investor may also receive extra shares to compensate them for the additional risk associated with being an earlier investor The worst-case scenario would be if the issuing company initially performed well, meaning that the debt would be converted into shares, and subsequently went bankrupt. The converted shares would become worthless, but the holder of the note would no longer have any recourse. Will twitter have to sell their offices and liquidate staff to close this debt? This depends on the seniority(priority) of the debt. Debt is serviced according to seniority. The higher seniority debts will be paid off first and then only the lower seniority debts be serviced. This will all be in the agreements when you enter into a transaction. When you say liquidate staff you mean sell off their assets and not sell their staff into slavery.
Is it true that my father and I get better exchange rate if he uses citibank than his local bank and my local bank? No. The rates vary from Bank to Bank and some days some bank may give a better rate and there is no Golden rule that One Bank will always give better rate. For the amount specified, your father needs to walk into his Bank, preferably the branch that deals with Forex or the Main Branch in the city. A better rate would be given. So any leading Bank like HDFC, ICICI, SBI, SBH, Axis will be similar. Please note a CA certificate is required to make such remittance outside of India.  having my father send me money in USD in India and I get USD here. In that case, my father would have to pay exchange fees Yes this is the only option. You have to convert INR to USD in India. having my father send me money in INR in India and I exchange INR to USD in the US. In this case, exchange fees would be on me INR cannot be sent to US electronically. It will automatically get converted to USD. There is no bank in US that holds an INR account for you to convert amount into USD. In general, to someone in a similar circumstance I might suggest that the lowest-risk option is to immediately convert your excess currency into the currency you will be spending. Note that 'risk' here refers only to the variance in possible outcomes. By converting to EUR now (assuming you are moving to an EU country using the EUR), you eliminate the chance that the GBP will weaken. But you also eliminate the chance that the GBP will strengthen. Thus, you have reduced the variance in possible outcomes so that you have a 'known' amount of EUR. To put money in a different currency than what you will be using is a form of investing, and it is one that can be considered high risk. Invest in a UK company while you plan on staying in the UK, and you take on the risk of stock ownership only. But invest in a German company while you plan on staying in the UK, you take on the risk of stock ownership + the risk of currency volatility. If you are prepared for this type of risk and understand it, you may want to take on this type of risk - but you really must understand what you're getting into before you do this. For most people, I think it's fair to say that fx investing is more accurately called gambling [See more comments on the risk of fx trading here: https://money.stackexchange.com/a/76482/44232]. However, this risk reduction only truly applies if you are certain that you will be moving to an EUR country. If you invest in EUR but then move to the US, you have not 'solved' your currency volatility problem, you have simply replaced your GBP risk with EUR risk. If you had your plane ticket in hand and nothing could stop you, then you know what your currency needs will be in 2 years. But if you have any doubt, then exchanging currency now may not be reducing your risk at all. What if you exchange for EUR today, and in a year you decide (for all the various reasons that circumstances in life may change) that you will stay in the UK after all. And during that time, what if the GBP strengthened again? You will have taken on risk unnecessarily.  So, if you lack full confidence in your move, you may want to avoid fully trading your GBP today. Perhaps you could put away some amount every month into EUR (if you plan on moving to an EUR country), and leave some/most in GBP. This would not fully eliminate your currency risk if you move, but it would also not fully expose yourself to risk if you end up not moving. Just remember that doing this is not a guarantee that the EUR will strengthen and the GBP will weaken. I don't recommend Roth for those in the 25% bracket. If you are in the 25% bracket now, I'd suggest you go pretax and as you are planning to be in a lower bracket in a few years, use that bracket to convert. Depositing today at 25% to convert at 15% in a few years puts you that much ahead.  I understand the allure of a Roth heavy strategy. And the fuzzy crystal ball for what the tax code will look like doesn't help. That said, a retiree today who is a few years too young for Social Security will see an Exemption + STD deduction of $10,000, and a 15% bracket ending at $36,250, so $46,250 total with a total tax bill of $4991. A retiree should target $250K-$500K pretax to stay flexible and not miss these low brackets in the future. Does the 5 year rule apply on the After-tax 401k -> Roth 401k -> Roth   IRA conversion of the 20000 (including 10000 earnings that was   originally pre-tax)? No. The after-tax amounts are not subject to the 5 years rule. The earnings are. How does this affect Roth IRA withdrawal ordering rules with respect   to the taxable portion of a single conversion being withdrawn before   the non-taxable portion? Taxable portion first until exhausted. To better understand how it works, you need to understand the rationale behind the 5-year rule. Consider you have $100K in your IRA (traditional) and you want to take it out. Just withdrawing it would trigger a 10K statutory penalty, on top of the taxes due. But, you can use the backdoor Roth IRA, right? So convert the 100K, and then it becomes after-tax contribution to Roth IRA, and can be withdrawn with no penalty. One form filled ad 10K saved. To block this loophole, here comes the 5 years rule: you cannot withdraw after-tax amounts for at least 5 years without penalty, if the source was taxable conversion. Thus, in order to avoid the 10K penalty in the above situation, you have a 5-year cooling period, which makes the loophole useless for most cases. However amounts that are after tax can be withdrawn without penalty already, even from the traditional IRA, so there's no need in the 5 years cooling period. The withdrawal attribution is in this order: Roth IRA rollovers are sourced to the origin. E.g.: if you converted $100 to the Roth IRA at firm X and then a year later rolled it over to firm Y - it doesn't affect anything and the clock is ticking from the original date of the conversion at firm X. 5-year period applies to each conversion/rollover from a qualified retirement plan (see here). Distributions are applied to the conversions in FIFO order, so in one distribution, depending on the amounts, you may hit several different incoming conversions. The 5 years should be check on each of them, and the penalty applied on the amounts attributable to those that don't have enough time. 5-year period for contributions applies starting from the beginning of the first year of the first contribution that established your Roth IRA plan. The penalty applies to the amounts that were included in your gross income when conversion occurred, i.e.: doesn't apply on the amounts converted from after-tax sources. Note the difference from the traditional IRA - distributions from pre-tax sources are prorated between the non-deductible (basis) amounts and the deductible/earnings amounts (taxable). That is why the taxable amounts are first in the ordering of the distributions. There is a subprime loaning bubble in the auto loan sector which is growing; while it's not in the $1 trillion range or as hidden as the real estate one was, it could cause issues down the road if it continues.  The use of derivatives or specifically, CDS, is continuing for other suspect investments.  It was used about 4 years ago to help hide Greece's sovereign default and like in 2008, it allowed the bad debt to be hidden and thrive to dangerous levels.  The use isn't widespread and limited to several firms so far, but its return as an instrument of choice so soon after the financial crisis is a little worrying that it may be a cyclical crisis. "What exactly is ""Call Protection""? Is ""NO"" normal for a CD?   A ""callable"" cd (or one without protection can be revoked before maturity by the issuer. For example, if interest rates drop they might recall the CD since they can borrow money at a lower rate. A callable CD should offer a better return in exchange for this. Is ""first coupon date"" the first time it actually pays interest?   Yes. Given that the first coupon date is in 6 months, and it's semiannual, is it fair to assume that this pays every six months?   Yes Given that the maturity date is 9/29/2025, this is really a 15-year CD, right?   It depends. CDs can be resold on the market. So it is AT LEAST a 15 year CD. It could also be a 20 year CD originally issued in 2005. What does ""Price (Ask)"" mean? It says 100 - does that mean you buy in chunks of $100?   Yes. More accurately, they are $100 per CD.  What is ""Yield to Worst (Ask)""? Is this the worst yield that this CD will return?   The lowest potential yield that can be received on a bond without the issuer actually defaulting. 3.25% is the best yield I've seen from something as stable as a CD. Would it be silly, though, to lock money up in an investment like this for 15 years?     There is no way to really say without a crystal ball. If you aren't willing to accept more risk and think that interest rates will remain at these historic lows for a long while, then it is probably a good deal. If you think interest rates are due to go up substantially, then it is probably smarter to ladder your investments in shorter term CDs. In investment circles this is known as ""Interest Rate Risk""" I'd not do business under these terms. A bill of sale needs a signature, right? Your signature is your word, and your word is your bond. I wouldn't participate in such a fraud, nor would I accept this sum of cash, who knows its origins? Inflation protected securities (i-bonds or TIPS).   TIPS stands for Treasury Inflation Protected Securities. By very definition, they tend to protect your savings against inflation. They won't beat inflation, but will keep up with it. TIPS or iBonds have two parts. A fixed interest part and a variable interest portion which varies depending upon the current rates. The combined rate would match the inflation rate. They can be bought directly from the treasury (or from a broker or bank who might charge a commission)