Why would someone want to buy an option on the day of expiry
The short answer to your initial question is: yes. The option doesn't expire until the close of the market on the day of expiration. Because the option is expiring so soon, the time value of the option is quite small.  That is why the option, once it is 'in-the-money', will track so closely to the underlying stock price. If someone buys an in-the-money option on the day of expiration, they are likely still expecting the price to go up before they sell it or exercise it. Many brokers will exercise your in-the-money options sometime after 3pm on the day of expiration.  If this is not what you desire, you should communicate that with them prior to that day. Market makers are required to buy options contracts as a condition of being a market maker.  It is what keeps the markets functioning and liquid. As to whether or not your trade can be closed at a profit depends on many variables - how much you paid, what the underlying security is, etc CBOE Options expiration FAQs Yes there will be enough liquidity to sell your position barring some sort of Flash Crash anomaly. Volume generally rises on the day of expiration to increase this liquidity. Don't forget that there are many investment strategies--buying to cover a short position is closing out a trade similar to your case.
"I believe they manage a bit over 500 million.  He is still the founder and probably has control of the company but he is not the ceo. He has probably gotten the company to a stable position and wants to move on to other things... big deal.  If tradeworx is stable and making money it is not a big deal if narang doesn't want to micro manage people and run day to day shit, someone else can handle that while he can go explore other things.  Just like De shaw did.... de shaw got his fund up and running, make a ton on money, left to do research and the fund still makes money.  [you can read this to see why he left](http://www.reuters.com/article/us-markets-tradeworx-narangdeparture/exclusive-tradeworx-founder-narang-leaves-high-frequency-firm-idUSKBN0KM1Z720150113)  ""Narang declined to spell out why he was leaving Red Bank, New Jersey-based Tradeworx, but said, “I had a few differences with the board about the direction of the company.”  Narang said there were no losses or expected losses at closely held Tradeworx, which he said has a bright future and where he remains a shareholder. Tradeworx accounts for about 5 to 6 percent of daily U.S. equity market volume, sources say.  There was no immediate response from Tradeworx management.  Narang has not decided on a future venture, but he said he is likely to remain in the financial services industry, is talking to people and is looking closely at the options market.  “I have a whole lot of ideas that I‘m excited about that I’ve been wanting to pursue, so now is the time to figure out which of those ideas I’d like to pursue,” Narang told Reuters.  “I‘m particularly interested in options trading, I have been for some time, that’s something Tradeworx doesn’t do. Many of my ideas are in that space,” said Narang, 45, who has degrees in computer science and mathematics from the Massachusetts Institute of Technology.""    edit- This all really has nothing to do with the original post about actuallyserious65 comment regarding hft." "I would suggest the following rationale : This appears to be a most unsatisfactory state of affairs, however, you can bet that this is how things are handled. As to who receives the dividend you have payed, this will be whoever the counter-party (or counter-parties) are that were assigned the exercise. EDIT Looking at the Dec16 SPY options, we see that the expiry date is 23 Dec.  Therefore, your options have been exercised prior to expiry.  The 3AM time stamp is probably due to the ""overnight batch processing"" of your brokers computer system.  The party exercising the options will have chosen to exercise on the day prior to ex-dividend in order to receive the dividends." "Below I will try to explain two most common Binomial Option Pricing Models (BOPM) used. First of all, BOPM splits time to expiry into N equal sub-periods and assumes that in each period the underlying security price may rise or fall by a known proportion, so the value of an option in any sub-period is a function of its possible values in the following sub period. Therefore the current value of an option is found by working backwards from expiry date through sub-periods to current time. There is not enough information in the question from your textbook so we may assume that what you are asked to do is to find a value of a call option using just a Single Period BOPM. Here are two ways of doing this: First of all let's summarize your information: Current Share Price (Vs) = $70 Strike or exercise price (X) = $60 Risk-free rate (r) = 5.5% or 0.055 Time to maturity (t) = 12 months Downward movement in share price for the period (d) = $65 / $70 = 0.928571429 Upward movement in share price for the period (u) = 1/d = 1/0.928571429 = 1.076923077 ""u"" can be translated to $ multiplying by Vs => 1.076923077 * $70 = $75.38 which is the maximum probable share price in 12 months time. If you need more clarification here - the minimum and maximum future share prices are calculated from stocks past volatility which is a measure of risk. But because your textbook question does not seem to be asking this - you probably don't have to bother too much about it yet. Intrinsic Value: Just in case someone reading this is unclear - the Value of an option on maturity is the difference between the exercise (strike) price and the value of a share at the time of the option maturity. This is also called an intrinsic value.  Note that American Option can be exercised prior to it's maturity in this case the intrinsic value it simply the diference between strike price and the underlying share price at the time of an exercise. But the Value of an option at period 0 (also called option price) is a price you would normally pay in order to buy it. So, say, with a strike of $60 and Share Price of $70 the intrinsic value is $10, whereas if Share Price was $50 the intrinsic value would be $0. The option price or the value of a call option in both cases would be fixed.  So we also need to find intrinsic option values when price falls to the lowest probable and rises to the maximum probable (Vcd and Vcu respectively) (Vcd) = $65-$60 = $5 (remember if Strike was $70 then Vcd would be $0 because nobody would exercise an option that is out of the money) (Vcu) = $75.38-$60 = $15.38 1. Setting up a hedge ratio:  h = Vs*(u-d)/(Vcu-Vcd) h = 70*(1.076923077-0.928571429)/(15.38-5) = 1 That means we have to write (sell) 1 option for each share purchased in order to hedge the risks. You can make a simple calculation to check this, but I'm not going to go into too much detail here as the equestion is not about hedging. Because this position is risk-free in equilibrium it should pay a risk-free rate (5.5%). Then, the formula to price an option (Vc) using the hedging approach is: (Vs-hVc)(e^(rt))=(Vsu-hVcu) Where (Vc) is the value of the call option, (h) is the hedge ratio, (Vs) - Current Share Price, (Vsu) - highest probable share price, (r) - risk-free rate, (t) - time in years, (Vcu) - value of a call option on maturity at the highest probable share price. Therefore solving for (Vc): (70-1*Vc)(e^(0.055*(12/12))) = (75.38-1*15.38) => (70-Vc)*1.056540615 = 60 => 70-Vc = 60/1.056540615 => Vc = 70 - (60/1.056540615)  Which is similar to the formula given in your textbook, so I must assume that using 1+r would be simply a very close approximation of the formula above. Then it is easy to find that Vc = 13.2108911402 ~ $13.21 2. Risk-neutral valuation: Another way to calculate (Vc) is using a risk-neutral approach. We first introduce a variable (p) which is a risk-neutral probability of an increase in share price. p = (e^(r*t)-d)/(u-d) so in your case: p = (1.056540615-0.928571429)/(1.076923077-0.928571429) = 0.862607107 Therefore using (p) the (Vc) would be equal: Vc = [pVcu+(1-p)Vcd]/(e^(rt)) => Vc = [(0.862607107*15.38)+(0.137392893*5)]/1.056540615 => Vc = 13.2071229185 ~ $13.21 As you can see it is very close to the hedging approach. I hope this answers your questions. Also bear in mind that there is much more to the option pricing than this. The most important topics to cover are: Multi-period BOPM Accounting for Dividends Black-Scholes-Merton Option Pricing Model" "What do you think is a reasonable rate of return? A reasonable rate really breaks down into three things: opportunity cost, what you need, and risk appetite. Opportunity cost comes into play because whatever returns you make should at least exceed, after expenses, the next best option.  Typically the ""next best option"" is the risk free return you can get somewhere else, which is typically a savings account or some other (safe) investment vehicle (e.g. a guaranteed investment certificate/GIC, bonds, etc).  But, this opportunity cost could also be an alternative investment (e.g. an index ETF), which is not necessarily risk free (but it may represent the next best option). Risk appetite comes down to the amount of risk you are willing to take on any investment, and is completely subjective.  This is typically ""how much can you sleep with losing"" amount. What you need is the most subjective element.  All things being equal (e.g. identical risk profiles, access to same next-best-thing to invest in), if your cost of living expenses are only expected to go up 2% per year, but mine are expected to go up 3% per year, then my reasonable rate of return must exceed 3%, but yours must only exceed 2%. That said, an appropriate return is whatever works for you, period.  Nobody can tell you otherwise. For your own investing, what you can do is measure yourself against a benchmark.  E.g. if your benchmark is the S&P 500, then the S&P 500 SPDR ETF is your opportunity cost (e.g. what you would have made if you didn't do your own investing).   In that way, you are guaranteed the market return (caveat: the market return is not guaranteed to be positive). As an aside.. Don't ever, ever, ever let someone else handle your money, unless you want somebody else have your money. There is nothing wrong with letting someone else handle your money, provided you can live with the triple constraint above.  Investing takes time and effort, and time and effort equals opportunity.  If you can do something better with the time and effort you would spend to do your own investing, then by all means, do it.  Think about it: if you have to spend 1 day a month managing your own investments, but that day costs you $100 in foregone income (e.g. you are a sole proprietor, so every day is a working day), that is $1,200 per year.  But if you can find an investment advisor who will manage your books for you, and costs you only $500 per year, what is the better investment?  If you do it yourself, you are losing $1,200.  If you pay someone, you are losing $500.  Clearly, it is cheaper to outsource. Despite what everyone says, not everyone can be an investor.  Not everyone wants to live with the psychological, emotional, and mental effort of looking up stocks, buying them, and then second guessing themselves; they are more than happy to pay someone to do that (which also lets them point the finger at that person later, if things go sideways)." When you buy a call option, you transfer the risk to the owner of the asset. They are risking losing out on gains that may accumulate in addition to the strike price and paid premium. For example, if you buy a $25 call option on stock XYZ for $1 per contract, then any additional gain above $26 per share of XYZ is missed out on by the owner of the stock and solely benefits the option holder. There's an odd anomaly that often occurs with shares acquired through company plans via ESPP or option purchase. The general situation is that the share value above strike price or grant price may become ordinary income, but a sale below the price at day the shares are valued is a capital loss.  e.g. in an ESPP offering, I have a $10 purchase price, but at the end of the offering, the shares are valued at $100. Unless I hold the shares for an additional year, the sale price contains ordinary W2 income. So, if I see the shares falling and sell for $50, I have a tax bill for $90 of W2 income, but a $50 capital loss. Tax is due on $90 (and for 1K shares, $90,000 which can be a $30K hit) but that $50K loss can only be applied to cap gains, or $3K/yr of income.  In the dotcom bubble, there were many people who had million dollar tax bills and the value of the money netted from the sale couldn't even cover the taxes. And $1M in losses would take 300 years at $3K/yr.  The above is one reason the lockup date expiration is why shares get sold. And one can probably profit on the bigger companies stock.  Edit - see Yelp down 3% following expiration of 180 day IPO lock-up period, for similar situation. "Simple answer: Breakeven is when the security being traded reaches a price equal to the cost of the option plus the option's strike price, assuming you choose to exercise it. So for example, if you paid $1.00 for,say, a call option with a strike price of $19.00, breakeven would be when the security itself reaches $20.00.  That being said, I can't imagine why you'd ""close out a position"" at the breakeven point.  You wouldn't make or lose money doing that, so it wouldn't be rational. Now, as the option approaches expiration, you may make adjustments to the position to reflect shifts in momentum of the stock.  So, if it looks as though the stock may not reach the option strike price, you could close out the position and take your lumps.  But if the stock has momentum that will carry it past the strike price by expiration, you may choose to augment your position with additional contracts, although this would obviously mean the new contracts would be priced higher, which raises your dollar cost basis, and this may not make much sense. Another option in this scenario is that if the stock is going to surpass strike price, it might be a good opportunity to buy additional calls with either later expiration dates or with higher strike prices, depending on how much higher you speculate the stock will climb.  I've managed to make some money doing this, buying options with strike prices just a dollar or two higher (or lower when playing puts), because the premiums were (in my opinion) underpriced to the potential peak of the stock by the expiration date.  Sometimes the new options were actually slightly cheaper than my original positions, so my dollar cost basis overall dropped somewhat, improving my profit percentages." I have held an in the money long position on an option into expiration, on etrade, and nothing happened.   (Scalping expiring options - high risk) The option expired a penny or two ITM, and was not worth exercising, nor did I have the purchasing power to exercise it. (AAPL) From etrade's website: Here are a few things to keep in mind about exercises and assignments: Equity options $0.01 or more in the money will be automatically   exercised for you unless you instruct us not to exercise them. For   example, a September $25 call will be automatically exercised if the   underlying security's closing price is $25.01 or higher at expiration.   If the closing price is below $25.01, you would need to call an   E*TRADE Securities broker at 1-800-ETRADE-1 with specific instructions   for exercising the option. You would also need to call an E*TRADE   Securities broker if the closing price is higher than $25.01 at   expiration and you do not wish to exercise the call option. Index   options $0.01 or more in the money will be automatically exercised for   you unless you instruct us not to exercise them. Options that are out   of the money will expire worthless. You may request to exercise   American style options anytime prior to expiration. A request not to   exercise options may be made only on the last trading day prior to   expiration. If you'd like to exercise options or submit   do-not-exercise instructions, call an E*TRADE Securities broker at   1-800-ETRADE-1. You won't be charged our normal fee for   broker-assisted trades, but the regular options commission will apply.   Requests are processed on a best-efforts basis.  When equity options are exercised or assigned, you'll receive a Smart   Alert message letting you know. You can also check View Orders to see   which stock you bought or sold, the number of shares, and the strike   price.  Notes: If you do not have sufficient purchasing power in your account   to accept the assignment or exercise, your expiring options positions   may be closed, without notification, on the last trading day for the   specific options series. Additionally, if your expiring position is   not closed and you do not have sufficient purchasing power, E*TRADE   Securities may submit do-not-exercise instructions without   notification. Find out more about options expiration dates.