What does “no adjustments” mean?
Typically that applies if the broker Form 1099-B reports an incorrect basis to the IRS.  If the Form 1099-B shows incorrect basis relative to your records, then you can use 8949, column (g) to report the correct basis.  The 8949 Instructions provide a brief example. http://www.irs.gov/pub/irs-prior/i8949--2013.pdf Although you have an obligation to report all income, and hence to report the true basis, as a practical matter this information will usually be correct as presented by the broker.  If you have separate information or reports relating to your investments, and you are so inclined, then you can double-check the basis information in your 1099-B. If you aren't aware of basis discrepancies, then the adjustments probably don't apply to you and your investments can stick to Schedule D. In addition to the adjustment type in NL7's answer, there are a host of others.  If there are any adjustments, form 8949 is required, if not, the gains can be separated into short and long-term and added together to be entered on Schedule D.  Anything requiring an adjustment code in column F of the 8949 requires an entry in column G.   Some other example entries for column F include: (see the 8949 instructions for a complete list) **A wash sale occurs when you sell or trade stock or securities at a loss and within 30 days before or after the sale you: Buy substantially identical stock or securities, Acquire substantially identical stock or securities in a fully taxable trade, Acquire a contract or option to buy substantially identical stock or securities, or Acquire substantially identical stock for your individual retirement account (IRA) or Roth IRA. (from Pub17)
His parents did not hand the job to him at all. What is it with Reddit hating every person who lucked into being born with more money than they did? Does that mean he never earned anything? Is he not self made, no matter what he does, simply because he had some.advantages that you did not? The first method is the correct one. You bought an asset worth of $1000 and you put it on your depreciation schedule. What it means is that you get to write off the $1000 over a certain period of time (and not at once, as you do with expenses). But the value you're writing off is the $1000 regardless of how much you've written off already. Assume you depreciate in straight line over 5 years (that's how you depreciate computers for Federal tax purposes, most states follow). For the simplicity of the calculation, assume you depreciate each year as a whole year (no mid-year/mid-quarter conventions). The calculation is like this: If you sell the computer - the proceeds above the adjusted basis amount are taxed as depreciation recapture up to the accumulated depreciation amount, and as capital gains above that. So in your case - book value is the adjusted basis at the end of the year (EOY), depreciation this year is the amount you depreciate in the year in question out of the total of the original cost, and the accumulated depreciation is the total depreciation including the current year. In Maryland they do not allow depreciating to $0, but rather down to 25% of the original cost, so if you bought a $1000 computer - you depreciate until your adjusted basis is $250. Depreciation rates are described here (page 5). For computers (except for large mainframes) you get 30% depreciation, with the last year probably a bit less due to the $250 adjusted basis limitation. First of all any loan will have the last payment be slightly different than the rest. Even if the interest rate is zero it is hard to have a perfect monthly payment amount. By perfect I mean the amount of the loan divided by the number of months would be $ddd.cc0000...  When looking at the amortization table the last payment will either be slightly higher or lower to adjust for the rounding that was done. My suspicion is that the rounding would have resulted in a left over 12 cents. It is also possible that you are paying it off slightly early and the computer is simply taking the leftover amount an spreading it over the remaining period of the loan. You could be paying it early because for the main part of the loan was paid to a company that rounds all payments to the higher dollar, or has a minimum monthly payment amount. I looked at the company you mentioned in the question, and searched the site for an amortization tool. I found it, and used the pre-filled in example. https://www.edfinancial.com/amortizationschedule?pmts=120&intr=6.8&prin=25000 If that last payment is not adjusted the borrower will still owe $0.12. The fact it equals your situation is a coincidence. But is does show what can happen. "&gt;They lie right to your face. ""Borrow tens of thousands of dollars to give to us, it will totally work out...for us.""  I don't believe they verbalize those last two words. They pretty much end it with a period after the ""work out"" part.  And then of course, they produce that BS statistic that college grads make a ""million dollars more over their career"".  I mean really?  Which grads are those? You mean the ones who graduated circa 45-50 (or more) years ago (when very few people had college degrees)?    And in exactly what inflation-adjusted time-frame was that ""million dollars""?  Was it 1960 dollars? 1980 dollars? 2000 dollars?  Because a million bucks, while still not pocket change even in 2012, was worth a LOT more the further you go back." Simple, there is no magic price adjustment after sales - why do you expect the stock price to change? The listed price of a stock is what someone was willing to pay for it in the last deal that was concluded. If any amount of stock changes ownership, this might have the effect that other people are willing to buy it for a higher price - or not. It is solely in the next buyer's decision what he is willing to pay. Example: if you think Apple stocks are worth 500$ a piece, and I buy a million of them, you might still think they are worth 500$. Or you might see this as a reason that they are worth 505$ now. Ok but if there's no money and nobody willing to lend, how are those payments made?   It's fine and dandy to have the theoretical obligation and willingness, but I'm wondering what happens when there's simply no more capability to borrow more.  Edit: Funny you say that, I'm moving in! "Well... to be fair... everyone can make a plan for their lives.  Of course, life happens and it can derail that plan.  With a plan, you can at least know you're making decisions that help propel you towards your goals.  Without a plan, you're just rudderless.    Planning doesn't cost anything.  Making goals doesn't cost anything.  With that being said, the less ""means"" that a person has, the harder it is to live below them.  It really comes down to individual circumstances." You're correct. If you have no option position at execution then you carry no risk. Your risk is only based on the net number of options you're holding at execution. This is handled by your broker or clearinghouse. Pretend that you wrote 1000 options, (you're short the call) then you bought 1000 of the same option (bought to cover) ... you are now flat and have zero options exposure. Pretend you bought 1000 options (you're long the calls) then you sold 1000 of them (liquidated your long) ... you are now flat and have zero options exposure.