1040 or 1040NR this time?
"1040 or 1040NR depends on whether you are a resident alien or nonresident alien -- 1040/1040A/1040EZ for resident aliens, and 1040NR/1040NR-EZ for nonresident aliens. Determining whether you are a resident is somewhat complex, and there is not enough information in your question to determine it. Publication 519 is the guide for taxes for aliens. (It hasn't been updated for 2014 yet, so mentally shift all the years in the publication up by one year when you read it.) Since you don't have a green card, whether you are a resident is determined by the Substantial Presence Test. The test says that if (the number of days you were in the U.S. in 2014) + 1/3 of (the number of days you were in the U.S. in 2013) + 1/6 of (the number of days you were in the U.S. in 2012) >= 183 days (half a year), then you are a resident alien for 2014. However, there are exceptions to the test. Days that you are an ""exempt individual"" are not counted toward the Substantial Presence Test. And ""exempt individuals"" include international students, trainees, teachers, etc. However, there are exceptions to the exceptions. Students are not ""exempt individuals"" for a year if they have been exempt individuals for any part of 5 previous calendar years. (Different exceptions apply for teachers and trainees.) So whether you are an ""exempt individual"" for one year inductively depends on whether you have been an ""exempt individual"" in previous years. Long story short, if before you came to the U.S. as an F-1 student, you haven't been in the U.S. on F-1 or J-1 status, then you will be a nonresident alien for the first 5 calendar years (calendar year = year with a number, not 365 days) that you've been on F-1. We will assume this is the case below. So if you started your F-1 in 2009 (any time during that year) or before, then you would have already been an exempt individual for 5 calendar years (e.g. if you came in 2009, then 2009, 2010, 2011, 2012, 2013 are your 5 years), so you would not be an exempt individual for any part of 2014. Since you were present in the U.S. for most of 2014, you meet the Substantial Presence Test for 2014, and you are a resident alien for all of 2014. If, on the other hand, you started your F-1 in 2010 (any time during that year) or after, then you would still be an exempt individual for the part of 2014 that you were on F-1 status (i.e. prior to October 2014. OPT is F-1.). Days in 2014 in H1b status (3 months) are not enough for you to satisfy the Substantial Presence Test for 2014, so you would be a nonresident alien for all of 2014. If you fall into the latter case (nonresident alien), there are some alternative choices you have. If you were in the U.S. for most of those last 3 months, then you are eligible to choose to use the ""First-Year Choice"". I will not go into the steps to use this choice, but the result is that it makes you dual-status for 2014 -- nonresident until October, and resident since October. If you are single, then making this choice pretty much gives you no benefit. However, if you are married, then making this choice allows you to subsequently make another choice to become a resident for all of 2014. Being resident gives you some benefits, like being able to file as Married Filing Jointly (nonresidents can only file separately), being able to use the Standard Deduction, being able to use many other deductions and credits, etc. Though, depending on what country you're from, it may affect your treaty benefits, so check that before you consider it." Since you were a nonresident alien student on F-1 visa then you will be considered engaged in a trade or business in the USA. You must file Form 1040NR.  Here is the detailed instruction by IRS - http://www.irs.gov/Individuals/International-Taxpayers/Taxation-of-Nonresident-Aliens
Such activity is normally referred to as bartering income. From the IRS site - You must include in gross income in the year of receipt the fair market value of goods or services received from bartering. Generally, you report this income on Form 1040, Schedule C (PDF), Profit or Loss from Business (Sole Proprietorship), or Form 1040, Schedule C-EZ (PDF), Net Profit from Business (Sole Proprietorship). If you failed to report this income, correct your return by filing a Form 1040X (PDF), Amended U.S. Individual Income Tax Return. Refer to Topic 308 and Amended Returns for information on filing an amended return. I was doing my taxes in the US (called Form 1040) and wanted to find out how to figure out the cost basis for the $3.006 that I received for each Siemens ADR that I hold in July 2013. I found that the cost-basis allocation ratio is as follows: Thus for the original poster the cost-basis is: Hope this helps someone. When you take the self employed health care deduction on on Line 29 of form 1040 for 2010 it also will lower your self employment tax.  See line 3 of Schedule SE.  You report your net earnings from self employment less line 29 from 1040. "From the poster's description of this activity, it doesn't look like he is engaged in a business, so Schedule C would not be appropriate. The first paragraph of the IRS Instructions for Schedule C is as follows: Use Schedule C (Form 1040) to report income or loss from a business   you operated or a profession you practiced as a sole proprietor. An   activity qualifies as a business if your primary purpose for engaging   in the activity is for income or profit and you are involved in the   activity with continuity and regularity. For example, a sporadic   activity or a hobby does not qualify as a business. To report income   from a nonbusiness activity, see the instructions for Form 1040, line   21, or Form 1040NR, line 21. What the poster is doing is acting as a nominee or agent for his members. For instance, if I give you $3.00 and ask you to go into Starbucks and buy me a pumpkin-spice latte, you do not have income or receipts of $3.00, and you are not engaged in a business. The amounts that the poster's members are forwarding him are like this.  Money that the poster receives for his trouble should be reported as nonbusiness income on Line 21 of Form 1040, in accordance with the instructions quoted above and the instructions for Form 1040. Finally, it should be noted that the poster cannot take deductions or losses relating to this activity. So he can't deduct any expenses of organizing the group buy on his tax return. Of course, this would not be the case if the group buy really is the poster's business and not just a ""hobby."" Of course, it goes without saying that the poster should document all of this activity with receipts, contemporaneous emails (and if available, contracts) - as well as anything else that could possibly be relevant to proving the nature of this activity in the event of an audit." The IRR is the Discount Rate r* that makes Net Present Value NPV(r*)==0. What this boils down to is two ways of making the same kind of profitability calculation.  You can choose a project with NPV(10%)>0, or you can choose based on IRR>10%, and the idea is you get to the same set of projects.  That's if everything is well behaved mathematically. But that's not the end of this story of finance, math, and alphabet soup. For investments that have multiple positive and negative cash flows, finding that r* becomes solving for the roots of a polynomial in r*, so that there can be multiple roots.  Usually people use the lowest positive root but really it only makes sense for projects where NPV(r)>0 for r<r* and NPV(r)<0 for r>r*.   To try to help with your understanding, you can evaluate a real estate project with r=10%, find the sum future discounted cash flows, which is the NPV, and do the project if NPV>0.   Or, you can take the future cash flows of a project, find the NPV as a function of the rate r, and find r* where NPV(r*)==0. That r* is the IRR.  If IRR=r*>10% and the NPV function is well behaved as above, you can also do the project. When we don't have to worry about multiple roots, the preceding two paragraphs will select the same identical sets of projects as meeting the 10% return requirement. There may be differences in different contexts, but here's my general understanding: Rate of Return (or Return on Investment) is the total gain or loss of an investment divided by the initial investment amount.  e.g. if you buy stock for $100 and later sell it for $120 you have a 20% Rate of Return.  You would have a 20% ROR regardless of if you sell it tomorrow or in a year. Internal Rate of Return is effectively annualized.  It is the annual rate at which each of a series of cashflows is discounted that would give you a net present value of 0.  Meaning if you spent $100 today and in exactly one year you received $120 back, you would have an IRR of 20%.  If you received the $120 back in 6 months, your IRR would be roughly 40%. An IRR calculation can include multiple cashflows at various times, while ROR is (in my mind) the total net gain or loss relative to the investment (irrespective of the time of the cash flows). IRR is more effective when comparing investments that have different time horizons.  Spending $100 to get $120 tomorrow is much better (from an IRR perspective) than getting $120 two years from now, since you could take that $20 gain and invest it for the rest of the two years. Generally, speaking the (Rm-Rf) is around around 7% and the Rf tends to be around 6-7%. 1.66% for Rf is wayyyyy too low.  If you used a beta of 0.5, an Rf of 6%, and an (Rm-Rf) of 7%, that would give you an Re (cost of equity) of 9.5%  The cost of equity should not be less than the cost of debt. If it is, you know you need to revisit your assumptions. This is wrong.  It should be  or  Now, to get back to self-employment tax.  Self-employment tax is weird.  It's a business tax.  From the IRS perspective, any self-employed person is a business.  So, take your income X and divide by 1.0765 (6.2% Social Security and 1.45% Medicare).  This gives your personal income.  Now, to calculate the tax that you have to pay, multiply that by .153 (since you have to pay both the worker and employer shares of the tax).   So new calculation  or they actually let you do  which is better for you (smaller).   And your other calculations change apace.   And like I said, you can simplify Q1se to  and your payment would be  Now, to get to the second quarter.  Like I said, I'd calculate the income through the second quarter.  So recalculate A based on your new numbers and use that to calculate Q2i.   or  Note that this includes income from both the first and second quarters.  We'll reduce to just the second quarter later.  This also has you paying for all of June even though you may not have been paid when you make the withholding payment.  That's what they want you to do.   But we aren't done yet.  Your actual payment should be  or  Because Q2ft and Q2se are what you owe for the year so far.  Q1ft + Q1se is what you've already paid.  So you subtract those from what you need to pay in the second quarter.  In future quarters, this would be  All that said, don't stress about it.  As a practical matter, so long as you don't owe $1000 or more when you file your actual tax return, they aren't going to care.  So just make sure that your total payments match by the payment you make January 15th.   I'm not going to try to calculate for the state.  For one thing, I don't know if your state uses Q1i or Q1pi as its base.  Different states may have different rules on that.  If you can't figure it out, just use Q1i, as that's the bigger one.  Fix it when you file your annual return.  The difference in withholding is going to be relatively small anyway, less than 1% of your income.