Flexplan - a company is taking over another, do I pay the balance?
This is only one of a series of questions your friend needs to understand. They will also need to know what happens to: vacation balances; the vacation earning schedule; retirement fund matching; the pension program; all the costs and rules regarding health, dental and vision;life insurance amounts. Some of these can be changed immediately. Some will not be changed this year because of IRS regulations. Everything can be changed by the next year. But there is no way to know if they will change a little a possible or as much a possible. It will depend on if they are buying the company, or if the company is going out of business and the new company is buying the remnants. They may also be essentially terminating the employees at the old place, and giving them the first opportunity for interviews. If they are essentially quitting they will not have to continue paying into the plan. The bad news is that their last day of work is also probably their last day to incur expenses that they can pay for with the flexible plan. If They are being purchased or absorbed the company will likely make no changes to the current plan, and fold them into the plan next year. I have been involved with company purchases and company splits, and this is how it was handled.
"The answer depends on what else you'd do with that 2%.  But first, let's look at some actual numbers. For simplicity's sake, let's say you have a £100k mortgage outstanding, your payment is £1000 per month, and you want to pay £1000 extra per month.  2% interest, compounded monthly for simplicity, so .02/12 = .00167% per month.  (Your interest is probably compounded daily, but this simplifies the math and isn't too far off of it.) If you don't pay it off early, then first month, you'll owe £100167, minus £1000, so £99167.  Second month, £99332 after interest, then £98332 after payment.  So on and so forth.  After 24th month (2 years), you'll owe £79613 after that 24th payment.  So you've paid off £20,000 of balance, at the cost of £24,000; total interest paid, £3,613. If you do pay off another £1000, so you put a total of £2000 in per month, which is penalized (.02*1000=£20) each payment, for a total of £48,000 paid over the 24 months.  After that 24 months, you have a balance of £55,637, so a bit over £44k paid off, at the cost of £48k; total interest and fees paid, £3,637. So, at the end of the 24 month period, you've paid an extra £24 in interest/fees than you would have otherwise.  You of course have a lower loan balance at the end, but you haven't saved any money overall, and if you're just refinancing at this point into a new loan, you're no better off (and very slightly worse off), even assuming the money will just sit in your bank account and do nothing.  I think with daily compounding interest it will be around the same or slightly better, but it's not a significant amount. Now, there is a third option, perhaps: pay £24000 (so after penalty, £23,520) on the first month.  This is that whole extra £1000 per month, all up front, where it makes the most difference for interest. This does help, some: you pay £3,172 in interest, around £450 less.  Sounds good to me, right?  Except, you might be able to make more than £450 with that £24,000.  £450 is 1.875% of £24,000, meaning you just need to make a 2% return on your money to beat out this option (and in fact, that's not surprising, given the 2% interest rate!).  Investing in the market, even conservatively, is likely, though not guaranteed, to be beneficial; over a 2 year period it's fairly risky, though if you can think over 5-10 years, it's very likely to be substantially better.  Even a 4-5% return (well below long-term market averages) will be quite a bit better, and the market's down quite a bit right now - so it might be even better than that - though it's still a risk. You can make a term deposit (looks like ""Fixed rate bond"" is the term), even, and at least break even - right now it looks like 1.9% is common for a 2 year term deposit in the UK. In total - my recommendation would be against paying off the mortgage early, particularly in this 2% interest rate period.  2% is around inflation levels, meaning you're not really paying any real interest, from one point of view.  Once the rates are higher (4%+) then it may be worth considering.   The exception here - basically the standard exception to these questions - is if you are otherwise going to spend the money on luxuries.  In that case, you're better off prepaying the mortgage, at least from a personal finance perspective, if you can do so up front - but not if you're going to do it monthly.  What is better for you personally in this regard is a question only you can answer, of course." "First to actually answer the question ""how long at these rates/payments?""-  These is nothing magic or nefarious about what the bank is doing. They add accrued interest and take your payment off the new total.  I'd make higher payments to the 8.75% debt until it's gone, $100/mo extra and be done. The first debt, if you bump it to $50 will be paid in 147 months, at $75/mo, 92 months. Everything you pay above the minimum goes right to the principal balance and gets you closer to paying it off.  The debt snowball is not the ideal way to pay off your debt. Say I have one 24% credit card the bank was nice enough to give me a $20,000 line of credit on. I also have 20 cards each with $1000 in credit, all at 6%. The snowball dictates that the smallest debt be paid first, so while I pay the minimum on the 24% card, the 6% cards get paid off one by one, but I'm supposed to feel good about the process, as I reduce the number of cards every few months.  The correct way to line up debt is to pay off the (tax adjusted) highest rate first, as an extra $100 to the 24% card saves you $2/mo vs 50 cents/mo for the 6% cards. I wrote an article discussing the Debt Snowball which links to a calculator where you can see the difference in methods. I note that if the difference from lowest to highest rate is small, the Snowball method will only cost you a small amount more. If, by coincidence, the balances are close, the difference will also be small.  The above aside, it's the rest of your situation that will tell you the right path for you. For example, a matched 401(k) deposit should take priority over most debt repayment. The $11,000 might be better conserved for a house downpayment as that $66/mo is student loan and won't count as the housing debt, rather ""other debt"" and part of the higher ratio when qualifying for the mortgage. If you already have taken this into account, by all means, pay off the 8.75% debt asap, then start paying off the 3% faster. Keep in mind, this is likely the lowest rate debt one can have and once paid off, you can't withdraw it again. So it's important to consider the big picture first.  (Are you depositing to a retirement account? Is it a 401(k) and are you getting any matching from the company?)" "I have a similar situation -- five different accounts between me and my wife. Just as you and @Alex B describe, I maintain my asset allocation across the combination of all accounts. I also maintain a spreadsheet to track the targets, deviations from the targets, amounts required to get back in balance, and overall performance. I (mostly) don't use mutual funds. I have selected, for each category, 1 or 2 ETFs. Choosing index ETFs with low expense ratios and a brokerage with cheap or free trades keeps expenses low. (My broker offers free ETF trades if you buy off their list as long as you aren't short-term trading; this is great for rebalancing for free 2 or 3 times a year.) Using ETFs also solves the minimum balance problem -- but watch out for commissions. If you pay $10 to buy $500 worth of an ETF, that's an immediate 2% loss; trade a couple of times a year and that ETF has to gain 5% just to break even. One issue that comes up is managing cash and avoiding transaction fees. Say your IRA has all the growth stock funds and your Roth has the bonds. Stocks do well and bonds do poorly, so you sell off some stocks, which creates a bunch of cash in your IRA. Now you want to buy some bonds but you don't have enough cash in your Roth, so you buy the bonds in your IRA. Not a problem at first but if you don't manage it you can end up with small amounts of various funds spread across all of your accounts. If you're not careful you can end up paying two commissions (in two different accounts) to sell off / purchase enough of a category to get back to your targets. Another problem I had is that only one account (401k) is receiving deposits on a regular basis, and that's all going into an S&P 500 index fund. This makes it so that my allocation is off by a fair amount every quarter or so -- too much in large cap equities, not enough of everything else. My solution to this going forward is to ""over-rebalance"" a couple of times a year: sell enough SPY from my other accounts so that I'm under-allocated in large caps by the amount I expect to add to my 401k over the next 3 months. (So that in six months at my next rebalancing I'm only 3 months over-allocated to large caps -- plus or minus whatever gains/losses there are.)" Is my understanding okay ? If so, it seems to me that this system is   rather error prone. By that I mean I could easily forget to make a   wire some day and be charged interests while I actually have more than   enough money on the check account to pay the debt. Which is where the credit card company can add fees so you pay more and they make more money. Don't forget that in the credit case, you are borrowing money rather than using your own. Another thing that bothers me is that the credit card apparently has a   rather low credit limit. If I wanted to buy something that costs $2500   but only have a credit limit of $1500, can I make a preemptive wire   from my check account to the VISA account to avoid facing the limit ?   If so, what is the point for the customer of having two accounts (and   two cards for that matter...) ? If you were the credit card company, do you believe people should be given large limits first? There are prepaid credit cards where you could put a dollar amount on and it would reject if the balance gets low enough. Iridium Prepaid MasterCard would be an example here that I received one last year as I was involved in the floods in my area and needed access to government assistance which was given this way. Part of the point of building up a credit history is that this is part of how one can get the credit limits increased on cards so that one can have a higher limit after demonstrating that they will pay it back and otherwise the system could be abused. There may be a risk that if you prepay onto a credit card and then want to take back the money that there may be fees involved in the transaction. Generally, with credit cards the company makes money on the fees involved for transactions which may come from merchants or yourself as a cash advance on a credit card will be charged interest right away while if you buy merchandise in a store there may not be the interest charged right away. You kind of have to take what the market is offering.  The easiest way would be for you to have a system by which you could purchase the entire business and then dispose of the FFE and other liabilities as part of the sale.  Then you could pick and choose which of the clients you want to add to your portfolio of clients and those you would release back to the market.  The valuation of the transaction is the trick.  Taking the new client and managing it profitably is presumably something you feel you are well-suited to do already. "The simple answer is that what you are doing is an incredible waste of time. The normal process is to charge, say, in January, the bill is cut at month end, and due by the 15th of February. No interest accrues. As long as the credit line is sufficient for your monthly spending, that's it.  Now, if you are watching your score closely, utilization might become an issue, if the statement amount is much over 20%, there's an impact to your score. This is easily addressed with a second monthly payment, made just before the bill is cut.  Keep in mind, the phrase ""carrying a balance"" commonly means not paying the bill in full, and letting interest accumulate. I understand you didn't mean that. The way you are paying your account isn't common, and really serves no value." You may have a few options if the company continues to ignore your communication.  Even if none of these works out, the debt should still probably be paid out by the estate of your friend. Not really. Transfer pricing determines where and at what level you should have profits and what level is considered arm's length. Profits are going to follow where the functions, risks and intangibles are borne under the current regulatory framework. Inverting allows a company to shift intangibles and risk to another country. You cannot just say I want 100% of my profits in Ireland and get away with it. You need to have economic support for why your profits are what they are in each of your jurisdictions.