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Why have candlestick charts overlaps?
Remember that prices refer to discrete events in the market - trades - it is easily possible that the highest price for a trade in the next period is lower than the highest price in the current one as someone in the current period may be willing to pay more in this period than anyone in the next. The ending price of a period is also determined this way; it is the last price that someone was willing to pay in this period not the first price that someone will pay in the next period. Why? because the last price in this period is not in the next period by definition! edit: added something on illiquid stocks Illiquid stocks may have intraday gaps in the sequence of candlesticks where no trading occurred. Below is one such chart for 1pm plc.(OPM.L) a UK based leasing company (thanks to Yahoo finance for this):