Based on your financial expertise, provide your response or viewpoint on the given financial question or topic. The response format is open.

Is it common for a new car of about $16k to be worth only $4-6k after three years?
It's possible the $16,000 was for more than the car.  Perhaps extras were added on at purchase time; or perhaps they were folded into the retail price of the car.  Here's an example.  2014: I'm ready to buy. My 3-year-old trade-in originally cost $15,000, and I financed it for 6 years and still owe $6500.  It has lots of miles and excess wear, so fair blue-book is $4500. I'm "upside down" by $2000, meaning I'd have to pay $2000 cash just to walk away from the car.  I'll never have that, because I'm not a saver.  So how can we get you in a new car today?  Dealer says "If you pay the full $15,000 retail price plus $1000 of worthless dealer add-ons like wax undercoat (instead of the common discounted $14,000 price), I'll eat your $2000 loss on the trade."  All gets folded into my new car financing.  It's magic! (actually it's called rollover.)  2017: I'm getting itchy to trade up, and doggone it, I'm upside down on this car.  Why does this keep happening to me?  In this case, it's rollover and other add-ons, combined with too-long car loans (6 year), combined with excessive mileage and wear on the vehicle.